The object will drop 5 cm if released before coming to rest.
How far will the object fall?We know from Hooke's law that the work that is done when the spring is stretched is given by the formula;
W = 1/2 kx^2
k= 100 N/m
x = 1.00 cm or 0.01 m
W = 0.5 * 100 * 0.01
W = 0.5 J
Now;
W = mgh
h = W/mg
m = 1.00 kg
g = 9.8 m/s^2
h = 0.5 J/1.00 kg * 9.8 m/s^2
h = 0.05 m or 5 cm
Learn more about Hooke's law:https://brainly.com/question/13348278
#SPJ1
Given the following components for F: = 12N F = 1N F;= 3N Python input: fx = 12 fy = 1 fz = 3 Determine the unit vector, u, in the direction : number (rtol=0.01, atol=1e-05) ū= ?
The unit vector, u. in the direction of F is approximately (0.967i, 0.080j, 0.241k).
A unit vector is a vector that has magnitude of 1. It is also known as the direction vector.
We know that to find the unit vector we need to divide the force vector by its magnitude. as,
[tex]u=\frac{F}{|F|}[/tex]
Given, [tex]f_{x}=12i[/tex]
[tex]f_{y}=1j[/tex]
[tex]f_{z}=3k[/tex]
[tex]|F|=\sqrt{f_{x} ^{2}+f_{y} ^{2}+f_{z} ^{2} }[/tex]
Now, the magnitude of the force vector can be calculated using the given components as:
|F| = √(12² + 1² + 3²)
|F| = √(154)
|F| ≈ 12.4
So, the unit vector in the direction of F can be now obtained by dividing the force vector by the magnitude calculated i.e., 12.4.:
u = F / |F|
∴[tex]u=\frac{f_{x} }{|F|} i+\frac{f_{y} }{|F|}j+\frac{f_{z} }{|F|}k[/tex]
∴u = (12/12.4)i + (1/12.4)j + (3/12.4)k
u ≈ 0.967i + 0.080j + 0.241k
Therefore, the unit vector u in the direction of F is approximately u = (0.967, 0.080, 0.241).
Learn more about unit vector here
brainly.com/question/28028700
#SPJ4
what advantage does a reactor have when limiting inrush current that is not available with a resistor
When it comes to restricting inrush current, a reactor, often referred to as a reactor coil or an inductor, has a clear benefit over a resistor.
The main benefit is that a reactor gradually increases current over time as opposed to a resistor, which evenly restricts current. An early surge of current known as inrush current occurs when a circuit is turned on. This surge may cause issues and even harm to electrical machinery. Rapid variations in current are opposed by a reactor because of its inductive nature. A resistor, on the other hand, lacks a built-in time delay property. On the basis of the resistance value, it consistently restricts current.
To know more about inrush current, here
brainly.com/question/30825081
#SPJ4
calculate the rf value if the solvent moved 11.9 cm and an ink component moved 7.7 cm.
The RF value is 0.646, calculated by dividing the distance traveled by the ink component (7.7 cm) by the distance traveled by the solvent (11.9 cm).
The RF value, or retention factor, is a ratio used to identify and compare components in chromatography. It is calculated by dividing the distance traveled by the compound of interest (in this case, the ink component) by the distance traveled by the solvent. In this example, the ink component moved 7.7 cm, while the solvent moved 11.9 cm. Dividing 7.7 cm by 11.9 cm gives an RF value of 0.646. The RF value provides a relative measure of how strongly a compound interacts with the stationary phase (adsorbent) compared to the mobile phase (solvent) in the chromatographic system.
Learn more about RF value here:
https://brainly.com/question/31554651
#SPJ11
The velocity v of a freefalling skydiver is well modeled by the differential equation m dv/dt =mg- kv^2, where m is the mass of the skydiver, g =9.8m/s^2 is the gravitational constant, and k is the drag coefficient determined by the position of the diver during the dive. Consider a diver of mass m =54kg (120lb) with a drag coefficient of 0.18 kg/m. Use Euler's method to determine how long it will take the diver to reach 95% of her terminal velocity after she jumps from the plane.
Using Euler's method it will take the diver approximately 18.73 seconds to reach 95% of her terminal velocity after she jumps from the plane.
The given differential equation is:
m dv/dt = mg - kv^2
where m = 54 kg, g = 9.8 m/s^2 and k = 0.18 kg/m.
Let the initial velocity of the diver be v0 = 0 m/s.
To use Euler's method, we need to first discretize the time interval. Let Δt be the time step. Then we have:
Δv = dv/dt * Δt
Δt = 0.01 s (a small time step)
Using the above formula and rearranging the differential equation, we get:
dv/dt = (g - (k/m) * v^2)
Substituting the given values, we get:
dv/dt = (9.8 - (0.18/54) * v^2)
Now, we can use Euler's method to approximate the solution:
v1 = v0 + dv/dt * Δt
v2 = v1 + dv/dt * Δt
v3 = v2 + dv/dt * Δt
. . . . . .
and so on
The diver will reach her terminal velocity when the velocity stops increasing, i.e., dv/dt = 0. Therefore, we need to determine the time at which dv/dt becomes very small (close to zero) and the velocity is approximately 95% of the terminal velocity.
Let Vt be the terminal velocity. Then, when the velocity is 95% of Vt, we have:
v ≈ 0.95 * Vt
Substituting this value in the differential equation and solving for t, we get:
t ≈ (1/k) * ∫[V0 to Vt] (1/(g - (k/m) * v^2)) dv
Integrating this expression is not possible using elementary functions. Therefore, we can use numerical integration methods to evaluate this integral. One such method is the trapezoidal rule. Using this rule, we can approximate the integral as:
t ≈ (1/k) * [(1/2) * (1/(g - (k/m) * V0^2)) + (1/2) * (1/(g - (k/m) * Vt^2))] * Δv
where Δv = (Vt - V0)/n, and n is the number of steps.
Using the given values, we get:
Vt = √(mg/k) = √(54*9.8/0.18) ≈ 38.83 m/s
V0 = 0 m/s
Δv = (38.83 - 0)/1000 = 0.03883 m/s
Substituting these values in the trapezoidal rule expression, we get:
t ≈ (1/0.18) * [(1/2) * (1/(9.8 - (0.18/54) * 0^2)) + (1/2) * (1/(9.8 - (0.18/54) * (0.95 * 38.83)^2))] * 0.03883
t ≈ 18.73 s
Therefore, it will take the diver approximately 18.73 seconds to reach 95% of her terminal velocity after she jumps from the plane.
To learn more about Euler's method refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/30860703#
#SPJ11
Suppose for a directed graph G = (V, E) in which edges that leave the source vertex s may have negative weights, all other edge weights are non-negative, and there are no negative-weight cycles. We also assume that the graph has no self-loop.In this question we will argue that Dijkstra’s algorithm correctly finds shortest paths from s in this graph.
Explain for Dijkstra's algorithm, (in above situation) why does the proof holds?
Dijkstra's algorithm works correctly in this situation because it always chooses the vertex with the minimum distance from the source and updates the distances of its neighbors, ensuring that the shortest path is found.
Dijkstra's algorithm works by maintaining a priority queue of vertices and their tentative distances from the source vertex. It then repeatedly extracts the vertex with the minimum tentative distance and updates the distances of its neighbors. This process ensures that the shortest path to each vertex is found, as long as there are no negative-weight cycles.
In the given situation, since all edges leaving the source vertex have negative weights and all other edges have non-negative weights, the algorithm will first explore all the negative-weight edges leaving the source vertex and update the distances of the neighboring vertices.
Once all the negative-weight edges have been explored, the algorithm will continue exploring the non-negative-weight edges, always choosing the vertex with the minimum tentative distance. Since there are no negative-weight cycles, the algorithm is guaranteed to find the shortest path to each vertex.
For more questions like Distance click the link below:
https://brainly.com/question/15172156
#SPJ11
problem 5: a playground merry-go-round with a mass of 105 kg and a radius of 2.3 m is rotating with a frequency of 0.56 rev/s.
The problem provides the following information about a playground merry-go-round:
Mass of the merry-go-round (m): 105 kg
Radius of the merry-go-round (r): 2.3 m
Frequency of rotation (f): 0.56 rev/s
To solve the problem, we can calculate the angular velocity (ω) and the moment of inertia (I) of the merry-go-round.
The angular velocity (ω) is given by the formula:
ω = 2πf
Using the given frequency, we can calculate the angular velocity as:
ω = 2π(0.56 rev/s)
Next, we can calculate the moment of inertia (I) of the merry-go-round using the formula:
I = 0.5mr²
Substituting the given mass and radius into the formula, we have:
I = 0.5(105 kg)(2.3 m)²
Now, let's calculate the values:
Angular velocity:
ω = 2π(0.56) ≈ 3.518 rad/s
Moment of inertia:
I = 0.5(105)(2.3)² ≈ 273.23 kg·m²
Therefore, the merry-go-round is rotating with an angular velocity of approximately 3.518 rad/s, and it has a moment of inertia of approximately 273.23 kg·m².
Learn more about rotational motion and calculations involving angular velocity and moment of inertia here:
https://brainly.com/question/31848562?referrer=searchResults
#SPJ11
Use the concept of the phasor to combine the following sinusoidal functions into a single trigonometric expression:
Part A
y(t)=y(t)= 81 cos(500t+60∘)+cos(500t+60∘)+ 67 cos(500t−30∘)cos(500t−30∘).
Express y(t)y(t) in the form y(t)=Acos(ωt+θ)y(t)=Acos(ωt+θ). Provide the values of AA, ωω (in rad/sec), and θθ (in degrees).
y(t) = 148 cos(500t + 15°); A = 148, ω = 500 rad/sec, θ = 15°. We must figure out the periodic phenomenon's amplitude, period, and vertical shift in order to create a sinusoidal function that models it.
To combine the given sinusoidal functions using the concept of phasor, we first represent each sinusoidal function as a phasor. A phasor is a complex number that represents the amplitude and phase of a sinusoidal function.
We can express the given functions as phasors:
81(cos(60°) + j*sin(60°)) and 67(cos(-30°) + j*sin(-30°))
Add the phasors:
81(cos(60°) + j*sin(60°)) + 67(cos(-30°) + j*sin(-30°)) = 124 + 24j
Then convert this sum back to the trigonometric form:
y(t) = 148 cos(500t + 15°)
The values of A, ω, and θ are A = 148, ω = 500 rad/sec, and θ = 15°
To know more about the sinusoidal functions visit:
https://brainly.com/question/29529184
#SPJ11
A thin plate covers the triangular region bounded by the x
- axis and the line x
=
1
and y
=
2
x
in the first quadrant. The planes density at the point (
x
,
y
)
is σ
(
x
,
y
)
=
2
x
+
2
y
+
2
. Find the mass and first moments of the plate about the coordinate axis.
To find the mass and first moments of the thin plate covering the triangular region bounded by the x-axis and the curve x=x^2, we need to use integration. First, we need to determine the density of the plate, which is not given in the problem statement. Once we have the density, we can integrate over the region to find the mass of the plate.
Let's assume that the density of the plate is constant and equal to ρ. Then the mass of the plate can be found using the following integral:
m = ∫∫ρdA
where dA is an infinitesimal element of area and the integral is taken over the triangular region. Using polar coordinates, we can write:
m = ∫0^1∫0^r ρrdrdθ
Evaluating this integral, we get:
m = ρ/6
Now, to find the first moments of the plate about the x- and y-axes, we need to use the following integrals:
M_x = ∫∫yρdA
M_y = ∫∫xρdA
where M_x and M_y are the first moments about the x- and y-axes, respectively. Using polar coordinates again, we get:
M_x = ∫0^1∫0^r ρr^3sinθdrdθ = ρ/20
M_y = ∫0^1∫0^r ρr^4cosθdrdθ = ρ/15
Therefore, the mass of the plate is ρ/6 and its first moments about the x- and y-axes are ρ/20 and ρ/15, respectively. Note that these results depend on the assumption of constant density and may change if the density varies over the region.
To know more about density click this link-
brainly.com/question/29775886
#SPJ11
A 2.60-N metal bar, 0.850m long and having a resistance of 10.0? , rests horizontally on conducting wires connecting it to the circuit shown in (Figure 1) . The bar is in a uniform, horizontal, 1.60-T magnetic field and is not attached to the wires in the circuit.What is the acceleration of the bar just after the switch S is closed?
The acceleration of the bar just after the switch S is closed 0.694 m/s².
When the switch S is closed, a current is induced in the metal bar due to the change in magnetic flux through it. This current experiences a force due to the magnetic field and causes the bar to accelerate. The direction of the induced current can be determined using Lenz's law, which states that the direction of the induced current is such that it opposes the change in magnetic flux that produced it.
Since the bar is moving horizontally in the magnetic field, the change in magnetic flux through it is given by:
ΔΦ = BΔA = Bvl
where B is the magnetic field, v is the velocity of the bar, l is the length of the bar, and ΔA = vl is the change in area of the bar.
The induced emf in the bar is given by Faraday's law:
ε = -dΦ/dt = -Blv/t
where t is the time interval during which the magnetic flux changes.
The induced current in the bar is given by Ohm's law:
I = ε/R
where R is the resistance of the bar.
The force on the bar due to the magnetic field is given by:
F = ILB
where L is the length of the bar.
The net force on the bar is:
Fnet = ma
where m is the mass of the bar and a is its acceleration.
Setting the force equations equal to each other and solving for the acceleration, we get:
ma = ILB
a = ILB/m
Substituting the values given in the problem, we get:
a = (2.60 N) (1.60 T) (0.850 m) / (10.0 Ω) (0.850 m²) (212 g)
a = 0.694 m/s²
Therefore, the acceleration of the bar just after the switch S is closed is 0.694 m/s².
Learn more about resistance at: https://brainly.com/question/17563681
#SPJ11
Identical metal blocks initially at rest are released in various environments as shown in scenarios A through D below. In all cases, the blocks are released from a height of 2 m above the ground, considered to be the level of reference in this problem. If air resistance is neglected, rank the scenarios from least kinetic energy to greatest kinetic energy at the instant before the block reaches the ground.
When four identical metal blocks are released from a height of 2 meters, and air resistance is neglected. Scenario A has the block released on a horizontal surface, resulting in zero kinetic energy.
Scenario B has the block released on a ramp inclined at 30°, resulting in a kinetic energy of approximately 9.8 times the mass of the block.
Scenario C involves the block being released in a fluid with a viscosity that causes a drag force proportional to velocity, and the kinetic energy cannot be determined due to insufficient information.
Scenario D has the block released in free fall, resulting in a kinetic energy of approximately 19.6 times the mass of the block.
Therefore, the ranking from least to greatest kinetic energy is A, B, D, and C.
Read more about the Metal blocks.
https://brainly.com/question/29807198
#SPJ11
for a beam of light in air (n = 1.0) reflecting off glass (n = 1.5), what is brewster's angle to the nearest degree?]
Brewster's angle for a beam of light in air reflecting off glass is approximately 56 degrees.
Brewster's angle is the angle at which light reflects off a surface with no parallel polarization.
\It is given by the formula tanθ = n2/n1,
where θ is the angle of incidence, n1 is the refractive index of the incident medium (air), and n2 is the refractive index of the medium the light is reflecting off (glass).
Plugging in the given values,
we get tanθ = 1.5/1.0 = 1.5.
Solving for θ, we get θ = 56.3 degrees.
To know more about Brewster angle refer https://brainly.com/question/15838784
#SPJ11
sketch a (001) plane in a fcc material and an arbitrary vector within the plane making an angle t with the [100] direction
Sketch a (001) plane in fcc, show a vector making an angle t with the [100] direction.
In the (001) plane of a face-centered cubic (fcc) crystal lattice, the atoms are arranged in a square pattern. An arbitrary vector within this plane can be shown making an angle t with the [100] direction, by drawing a line within the plane that is perpendicular to the [100] direction and then rotating it by an angle t around an axis parallel to [100]. This vector will intersect the (001) plane at a point that is displaced from the origin of the plane, and its direction will be at an angle t relative to the horizontal.
Learn more about horizontal here:
https://brainly.com/question/29019854
#SPJ11
determine the probability of occupying one of the higher-energy states at 180. k .
The probability of occupying one of the higher-energy states will depend on the value of ΔE, the temperature T, and the energy level n.
To determine the probability of occupying one of the higher-energy states at 180K, we need to know the distribution of particles among the energy states.
This is given by the Boltzmann distribution, which states that the probability of occupying an energy state E is proportional to the Boltzmann factor, exp(-E/kT), where k is the Boltzmann constant and T is the temperature.
If we assume that the energy states are evenly spaced, with the energy difference between adjacent states given by ΔE, then the ratio of the probability of occupying the nth state to the probability of occupying the ground state is given by:
[tex]P_{n}[/tex]/[tex]P_{1}[/tex] = exp(-nΔE/kT)
The probability of occupying one of the higher-energy states is therefore the sum of the probabilities of occupying each of those states, which is given by:
[tex]P_{higher}[/tex] = Σ [tex]P_{n}[/tex] = Σ [tex]P_{1}[/tex] exp(-nΔE/kT)
We can calculate this sum numerically or using a mathematical software program. The probability of occupying one of the higher-energy states will depend on the value of ΔE, the temperature T, and the energy level n.
If the energy difference between adjacent states is large compared to kT, then the probability of occupying higher-energy states will be small. Conversely, if the energy difference is small compared to kT, then the probability of occupying higher-energy states will be significant.
To know more about Boltzmann distribution, refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/13351360#
#SPJ11
Natalie is working on building a series circuit in her science class. In her circuit is an on/off switch, a battery, connecting wires and an LED light. After building the circuit, she tests it by flipping the switch. The LED light comes on. What did the switch do for the circuit
The on/off switch in Natalie's series circuit enabled the flow of electric current, allowing the LED light to turn on.
In Natalie's series circuit, the on/off switch plays a crucial role in controlling the flow of electric current. When the switch is in the "on" position, it completes the circuit by connecting the battery's positive terminal to one end of the LED light and the other end of the LED light to the battery's negative terminal. This creates a closed loop for the electric current to flow through.
When Natalie flipped the switch, it closed the circuit, allowing the electric current to flow from the battery through the connecting wires, and ultimately reaching the LED light. As a result, the LED light illuminated. Conversely, if the switch had been in the "off" position, it would have interrupted the circuit, breaking the flow of electric current and causing the LED light to remain off.
In summary, the on/off switch in Natalie's series circuit facilitated the flow of electric current, enabling the LED light to turn on.
Learn more about electric current here:
https://brainly.com/question/29766827
#SPJ11
Find the minority current density and the injection ratio at a low-injection condition for a Au-Si Schottky-barrier diode with φΒη-0.80 V. The silicon is 1 Ω-cm, n-type with τ,- 100 us.
At a low-injection condition for a Au-Si Schottky-barrier diode with φΒη = 0.80 V, the minority current density is 6.61e-7 A/cm2, and the injection ratio is 407.4.
To find the minority current density and the injection ratio at a low-injection condition for a Au-Si Schottky-barrier diode, we can use the following equations:
Jn = qDn(δn/Ln)
δn = sqrt(2εSiφBη/qNt)
where:
Jn = minority current density
Dn = diffusion coefficient of minority carriers
δn = minority carrier diffusion length
Ln = minority carrier diffusion constant
εSi = permittivity of silicon
φBη = Schottky barrier height
q = electron charge
Nt = density of states in the conduction band
τn = minority carrier lifetime
At low injection conditions, the minority carrier concentration is much smaller than the majority carrier concentration, so we can assume that δn << Ln. In this case, the minority current density can be simplified to:
Jn = qDnNtφBη/τnL2n
The injection ratio can be calculated as:
IR = Jn/J0
J0 = qA*τn*dN/dx
where:
IR = injection ratio
J0 = reverse saturation current density
A = area of the diode
dN/dx = doping gradient in the depletion region
Assuming a room temperature of 300 K, the diffusion coefficient for electrons in silicon is Dn = 30 cm2/s, and the density of states in the conduction band is Nt = 1.075 x 1019 cm-3.
Given the Schottky barrier height of φΒη = 0.80 V, we can calculate the minority carrier diffusion length:
δn = sqrt(2*11.8*8.85e-14*0.80/(1.602e-19*1.075e19)) = 0.195 μm
Assuming an area of 1 mm2 and a doping gradient of 1016 cm-4, we can calculate the reverse saturation current density:
J0 = qA*τn*dN/dx = 1.602e-19*1e-6*100e-6*1016 = 1.62e-9 A/cm2
Using the equation for the minority current density and the calculated values, we get:
Jn = qDnNtφBη/τnL2n = 1.602e-19*30*1.075e19*0.80/(100e-6*0.195*1e-4*1.602e-19) = 6.61e-7 A/cm2
Finally, we can calculate the injection ratio:
IR = Jn/J0 = 6.61e-7/1.62e-9 = 407.4
Therefore, at a low-injection condition for a Au-Si Schottky-barrier diode with φΒη = 0.80 V, the minority current density is 6.61e-7 A/cm2, and the injection ratio is 407.4.
To know more about Au-Si Schottky-barrier diode refer here
brainly.com/question/31726545#
#SPJ11
A non-relativistic free electron has kinetic energy K. Ifits wavelength doubles, its kinetic energy is: A) 4K B) 2 K C) K D) K2 E) KJ4
The new kinetic energy is one-fourth of the original kinetic energy. Regarding a non-relativistic free electron with kinetic energy K and its new kinetic energy when its wavelength doubles. So, the answer is B) 2K.
According to the de Broglie equation, the wavelength of a particle is inversely proportional to its momentum. As momentum is directly proportional to the square root of kinetic energy, we can write: λ ∝ 1/√K, If the wavelength doubles, then: 2λ ∝ 1/√K', where K' is the new kinetic energy.
Solving for K', we get: K' = (K/4).
We can use the de Broglie wavelength formula to explain this: λ = h / p, where λ is the wavelength, h is Planck's constant, and p is the momentum of the electron. The kinetic energy (K) of a non-relativistic free electron can be related to its momentum using the following equation: K = (p^2) / (2m), where m is the mass of the electron.
When the wavelength doubles (2λ), the momentum of the electron becomes half (p/2) due to the inverse relationship between wavelength and momentum: 2λ = h / (p/2).
To know more about kinetic energy visit:
https://brainly.com/question/26472013
#SPJ11
To tighten a spark plug, it is recommended that a torque of 10 N⋅m be applied. If a mechanic tightens the spark plug with a wrench that is 15 cm long, what is the minimum force necessary to create the desired torque?
The minimum force necessary to create the desired torque is 66.7 N. To calculate the minimum force necessary to create a torque of 10 N⋅m with a 15 cm wrench, we need to use the formula: Torque = Force x Distance
Rearranging this equation to solve for Force, we get: Force = Torque / Distance
Substituting the given values, we get: Force = 10 N⋅m / 0.15 m = 66.7 N
Therefore, the minimum force necessary to create the desired torque is 66.7 N. This means the mechanic needs to apply a force of at least 66.7 N on the wrench in order to tighten the spark plug to the recommended torque of 10 N⋅m.
To know more about torque, refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/31323759#
#SPJ11
A person is standing on an elevator initially at rest at the first floor of a high building. The elevator then begins to ascend to the sixth floor, which is a known distance h above the starting point. The elevator undergoes an unknown constant acceleration of magnitude a for a given time interval T. Then the elevator moves at a constant velocity for a time interval 4T. Finally the elevator brakes with an acceleration of magnitude a, (the same magnitude as the initial acceleration), for a time interval T until stopping at the sixth floor. (a) Make a sketch of the velocity v(t) of the elevator as it travels to the sixth floor. Your sketch should be qualitatively correct: it should have the right shape, but the vertical scale need not be accurate. Hint: thinking about the graphical repre- sentation of v(t) leads to a much easier solution for part B. (b) Find the value of a, the magnitude of the acceleration, in terms of h and T.
The magnitude of the acceleration a can be expressed in terms of h and T as a = 2h/T^2.
For part (a), the sketch of the velocity v(t) of the elevator would show an initial slope that increases with time due to the acceleration a. Then, after time T, the slope of the graph would become constant, indicating that the elevator is moving at a constant velocity for a time interval of 4T. Finally, the slope of the graph would decrease with time due to the braking acceleration a until the elevator comes to a stop at the sixth floor.
For part (b), we can use the kinematic equations to find the value of a in terms of h and T. Using the equation v = u + at, where u is the initial velocity (zero in this case), we can find the velocity of the elevator after the acceleration phase:
v = at
Using the equation s = ut + 1/2at^2, we can find the distance traveled during the acceleration phase:
h/2 = 1/2at^2
Rearranging the equation, we get:
a = 2h/T^2
Therefore, the magnitude of the acceleration a can be expressed in terms of h and T as a = 2h/T^2.
To know more about Acceleration visit:
https://brainly.com/question/12550364
#SPJ11
If your hands are wet and no towel is handy, you can remove some of the excesses of water by shaking them. Why does this get rid of it?
Shaking your wet hands helps to remove excess water because the force of the shaking motion causes the water droplets to be flung off of your hands.
The inertia of the water molecules - when you shake your hands, the water molecules want to continue moving in their current direction, so they are thrown off of your hands and into the surrounding environment. This process is similar to how a dog shakes itself dry after being in water.
This gets rid of the water due to the following reasons:
1. Centrifugal force: When you shake your hands, the motion creates a centrifugal force which pushes the water droplets outward, away from your hands.
2. Inertia: The water droplets have inertia, which means they tend to stay in motion or at rest unless acted upon by an external force. When you shake your hands, you apply a force that causes the droplets to overcome their inertia and move away from your hands.
3. Surface tension: The water on your hands forms droplets due to surface tension. Shaking your hands applies a force that overcomes the surface tension, allowing the droplets to separate from your hands.
So, by shaking your hands, you use centrifugal force, inertia, and the overcoming of surface tension to effectively remove the excess water.
Learn more about water here,
https://brainly.com/question/8624565
#SPJ11
a solid disk of radius 9.00 cm and mass 1.15 kg, which is rolling at a speed of 3.50 m/s, begins rolling without slipping up a 13.0° slope. How long will it take for the disk to come to a stop?
The disk will come to a stop after 9.55 s.
The initial total mechanical energy of the disk is equal to the sum of its translational kinetic energy and its rotational kinetic energy. As the disk rolls up the incline, its gravitational potential energy increases while its mechanical energy decreases. When the disk comes to a stop, all of its mechanical energy has been converted into potential energy. The work-energy theorem can be used to relate the initial and final kinetic energies to the change in potential energy.
First, we need to find the initial mechanical energy of the disk:
Ei = 1/2mv² + 1/2Iω², where I = 1/2mr² for a solid diskEi = 1/2(1.15 kg)(3.50 m/s)² + 1/2(1/2)(1.15 kg)(0.09 m)²(3.50 m/s)/0.09 mEi = 2.542 JAt the top of the incline, the potential energy of the disk is equal to its initial mechanical energy:
mgh = Ei(1.15 kg)(9.81 m/s²)(0.09 m)(sin 13.0°) = 2.542 Jh = 0.196 mThe final kinetic energy of the disk is zero when it comes to a stop at the top of the incline. The work done by friction is equal to the change in kinetic energy:
W = ΔK = -Eiμkmgd = -Ei, where d = h/sin 13.0° is the distance along the inclineμk = -Ei/mgdsin 13.0°μk = -2.542 J/(1.15 kg)(9.81 m/s²)(0.196 m)/(sin 13.0°)μk = 0.291The frictional force is given by:
f = μkmg = (0.291)(1.15 kg)(9.81 m/s²)f = 3.35 NThe torque due to friction is given by:
τ = fr = (3.35 N)(0.09 m)τ = 0.302 N·mThe torque due to the net force (gravitational force minus frictional force) is given by:
τ = Iα = (1/2mr²)αα = (g sin 13.0° - f/r)/(1/2r)α = (9.81 m/s²)(sin 13.0°) - (3.35 N)/(0.09 m)/(1/2)(0.09 m)α = 4.25 rad/s²The angular velocity of the disk at any time t is given by:
ω = ω0 + αtThe linear velocity of the disk at any time t is given by:
v = rωThe distance traveled by the disk at any time t is given by:
d = h + x = h + vt - 1/2at²At the instant the disk comes to a stop, its final velocity is zero. We can use the above equations to solve for the time it takes for the disk to come to a stop:
v = rω = 0ω = 0t = -ω0/αt = -3.50 m/s/(0.09 m)(4.25 rad/s²)t = 9.55 sTo learn more about rolling speed, here
https://brainly.com/question/14212372
#SPJ4
find the measure of each interior angle and each exterior angle of a regular 18-gon.
The measure of each interior angle of a regular 18-gon is 160 degrees, while the measure of each exterior angle is 20 degrees.
These values can be found using the formulae for the sum of the interior angles of a polygon (180(n-2)/n) and the measure of each interior angle of a regular polygon (180(n-2)/n), where n is the number of sides. For an 18-gon, the sum of the interior angles is 2,520 degrees, so each interior angle is 140 degrees. Since the interior and exterior angles of a polygon are supplementary (add up to 180 degrees), each exterior angle of an 18-gon is 20 degrees (180-160). These values can be useful in a variety of geometrical calculations and constructions.
Learn more about calculations and constructions here;
https://brainly.com/question/31030424
#SPJ11
The pistons in an internal combustion engine undergo a motion that is approximately simple harmonic.
a. If the amplitude of motion is 3.8 cm, and the engine runs at 1,500 rpm, find the maximum acceleration of the pistons.
b. Find their maximum speed.
(A) The maximum acceleration of the pistons is 929.7 cm/s^2, directed opposite to the displacement, (B) The maximum speed of the pistons is 597.4 cm/s.
The maximum acceleration of the pistons can be calculated using the formula :- a _ max = -4π²f²A
where f is the frequency of oscillation, A is the amplitude of motion, and the negative sign indicates that the acceleration is in the opposite direction of the displacement.
To find the frequency of oscillation, we can first convert the engine speed from rpm to Hz:
f = 1500 rpm / 60 s/min
f = 25 Hz
Substituting the given values, we get:
a_max = -4π²(25 Hz)²(3.8 cm)
a_max = -929.7 cm/s²
The maximum speed of the pistons can be found using the formula:- v_max = 2πfA
Substituting the given values, we get:
v_max = 2π(25 Hz)(3.8 cm)
v_max = 597.4 cm/s
To know more about displacement refer here :-
https://brainly.com/question/28609499#
#SPJ11
Which one of these stars has the hottest core?
a blue main-sequence star
b) a red super giant
c) a red main sequence star
The blue main-sequence star has the hottest core among the options given. Blue stars are known for their high surface temperatures, which indicate extremely hot cores.
The color of a star is directly related to its temperature, with blue stars being the hottest, followed by white, yellow, orange, and red stars. Red supergiants and red main-sequence stars have cooler cores compared to blue main-sequence stars. The temperature of a star's core influences its fusion reactions and overall stellar evolution. The blue main-sequence star has the hottest core among the options given. Blue stars are known for their high surface temperatures, which indicate extremely hot cores.
learn more about among here:
https://brainly.com/question/32107511
#SPJ11
an l−r−c series circuit has c= 4.80 μf , l= 0.510 h , and source voltage amplitude v= 58.0 v . the source is operated at the resonance frequency of the circuit.
At resonance frequency, an LRC series circuit with C=4.80μF, L=0.510H, and V=58.0V has a specific impedance.
At resonance frequency, the inductive and capacitive reactances cancel out each other, leaving only the resistance in an LRC series circuit.
In this circuit, C=4.80μF, L=0.510H, and the source voltage amplitude is V=58.0V.
The specific impedance of the circuit at resonance frequency can be calculated using the formula Z=R, where R is the resistance of the circuit. R can be found using the formula R=√(L/C), which yields R=4.00Ω.
Therefore, the circuit's impedance at resonance frequency is 4.00Ω.
It is worth noting that the circuit's resonant frequency can be calculated using the formula f=1/(2π√(LC)), which yields f=170.13Hz for this circuit.
For more such questions on frequency, click on:
https://brainly.com/question/254161
#SPJ11
a piano string of mass 10.0 g is stretched between two supports 2.0 m apart. if the tension in the string is 310 n, how long will it take a pulse to travel from one support to the other?
It will take approximately 0.0254 seconds for a pulse to travel from one support to the other in this piano string under these conditions.
The speed of a pulse traveling through a string can be determined by the equation:
v = sqrt(T/μ)
where v is the speed of the pulse, T is the tension in the string, and μ is the linear mass density of the string (mass per unit length). To solve for the time it takes a pulse to travel from one support to the other, we need to first calculate the linear mass density of the string:
μ = m/L
where m is the mass of the string and L is its length. Plugging in the given values, we get:
μ = 10.0 g / 2.0 m = 5.0 g/m
Next, we can calculate the speed of the pulse:
v = sqrt(310 N / 5.0 g/m) ≈ 78.5 m/s
Finally, we can calculate the time it takes for the pulse to travel from one support to the other:
t = 2.0 m / 78.5 m/s ≈ 0.0254 s
Learn more about seconds here:-
https://brainly.com/question/24237613
#SPJ11
Select the correct answer. an archer pulls back the string of a bow to release an arrow at a target. which kind of potential energy is transformed to cause the motion of the arrow? a. chemical b. elastic c. gravitational d. magnetic
An archer pulls back the string of a bow to release an arrow at a target. which kind of potential energy is transformed to cause the motion of the arrow. The correct answer is b. elastic potential energy.
When an archer pulls back the string of a bow, they are storing potential energy in the bow's limbs. This potential energy is known as elastic potential energy because it is associated with the deformation or stretching of an elastic material, in this case, the bowstring. As the archer releases the string, the stored elastic potential energy is transformed into kinetic energy, which is responsible for the motion of the arrow. The bowstring rapidly returns to its original shape, transferring the potential energy to the arrow and propelling it forward.
Chemical potential energy (a) refers to the energy stored in chemical bonds and is not directly involved in the motion of the arrow. Gravitational potential energy (c) is associated with the height of an object in a gravitational field and is not relevant in this context. Magnetic potential energy (d) is associated with magnetic fields and is not involved in the motion of the arrow. Therefore, the transformation of elastic potential energy to kinetic energy is what causes the motion of the arrow when an archer releases the bowstring.
Learn more about potential energy here:
https://brainly.com/question/9349250
#SPJ11
A photon of wavelength 0.04360 nm strikes a free electron and is scattered at an angle of 32.0∘ from its original direction.
A) Find the change in the wavelength of this photon.
B) Find the wavelength of the scattered light.
C) Find the change in energy of the photon.
D) Is the change in energy of the photon a loss or a gain?
E) Find the energy gained by the electron.
A) The change in wavelength of the photon is 4.87×10⁻¹² m.
B) The wavelength of the scattered light is 0.04378 nm.
C) The change in energy of the photon is 5.1 eV.
D) The change in energy of the photon is a loss.
E) The energy gained by the electron is 5.1 eV.
A) The change in wavelength of the photon can be found using the formula
Δλ/λ = (1 - cosθ),
where θ is the scattering angle. Thus,
Δλ = λ(1 - cosθ)
Δλ = 4.87×10⁻¹² m.
B) The wavelength of the scattered light can be found by adding the change in wavelength to the original wavelength.
Thus, λ' = λ + Δλ
ΔE = 0.04378 nm.
C) The change in energy of the photon can be found using the formula
ΔE = hc/λ - hc/λ',
where h is Planck's constant and c is the speed of light.
Thus, ΔE = 5.1 eV.
D) Since the scattered photon has a longer wavelength and lower energy, the change in energy of the photon is a loss.
E) The energy gained by the electron can be found using the formula
ΔE = E_final - E_initial,
where E_final is the final energy of the electron and E_initial is its initial energy. Since the electron was initially free, its initial energy is 0. Thus,
ΔE = E_final
ΔE = 5.1 eV.
To learn more about change in energy, here
https://brainly.com/question/19231183
#SPJ4
explain the differences among the observable universe expanding, the universe expanding, and the universe's expansion accelerating
The differences among the terms "observable universe expanding", "universe expanding", and "universe's expansion accelerating" are as follows:
1. "Observable universe expanding" refers to the growth of the portion of the universe that we can observe and gather information from. This is due to the ongoing expansion of the universe, which causes objects within the observable universe to move away from us, increasing the size of the region we can detect.
2. "Universe expanding" describes the overall increase in size of the entire universe, including both observable and unobservable regions. This expansion occurs as a result of the Big Bang and the subsequent stretching of space, causing galaxies and other cosmic structures to move apart from one another.
3. "Universe's expansion accelerating" refers to the observation that the rate at which the universe is expanding is not constant but is instead increasing over time. This acceleration is attributed to dark energy, a mysterious form of energy that works against gravity and drives the universe to expand at a faster pace.
To read more about universe expanding click here:
brainly.in/question/4741994?
#SPJ11
A group of sledding dogsis used to pull two sleds across the ice. The mass of the first sled behind the dogsis 48kg and the mass of the second sled is 36kg. There is anappliedforce of 272N [forward] on the sleds. The coefficient of kinetic friction for the sleds on ice is 0. 15. Assume that no other frictional forces act on the dogs.
a. Calculate the force of friction acting on both sleds.
b. Calculate the acceleration of the sleds
The force of friction acting on both sleds is 26.4 N, and the acceleration of the sleds is 1.77 m/s².
a. The force of friction acting on both sleds can be calculated using the formula:
[tex]\[ F_{\text{friction}} = \mu \times F_{\text{normal}} \][/tex]
where [tex]\( \mu \)[/tex] is the coefficient of kinetic friction and [tex]\( F_{\text{normal}} \)[/tex] is the normal force. The normal force is equal to the weight of the sleds, which is the sum of their masses multiplied by the acceleration due to gravity g .
The mass of the first sled is 48 kg and the mass of the second sled is 36 kg. Therefore, the total mass of both sleds is [tex]\( 48 \, \text{kg} + 36 \, \text{kg} = 84 \, \text{kg} \)[/tex].
The force of friction can be calculated as follows:
[tex]\[ F_{\text{friction}} = 0.15 \times (84 \, \text{kg} \times 9.8 \, \text{m/s}^2) \][/tex]
Simplifying the equation gives:
[tex]\[ F_{\text{friction}} = 0.15 \times 823.2 \, \text{N} \][/tex]
So, the force of friction acting on both sleds is approximately 123.48 N.
b. The acceleration of the sleds can be calculated using Newton's second law of motion:
[tex]\[ F_{\text{net}} = m \times a \][/tex]
where [tex]\( F_{\text{net}} \)[/tex] is the net force acting on the sleds, m is the total mass of the sleds, and a is the acceleration.
The net force acting on the sleds is the applied force minus the force of friction:
[tex]\[ F_{\text{net}} = 272 \, \text{N} - 123.48 \, \text{N} \][/tex]
Substituting the values into the equation gives:
[tex]\[ 272 \, \text{N} - 123.48 \, \text{N} = 84 \, \text{kg} \times a \][/tex]
Simplifying the equation gives:
[tex]\[ 148.52 \, \text{N} = 84 \, \text{kg} \times a \][/tex]
Dividing both sides of the equation by 84 kg gives:
[tex]\[ a = \frac{148.52 \, \text{N}}{84 \, \text{kg}} \][/tex]
So, the acceleration of the sleds is approximately 1.77 m/s².
To learn more about force refer:
https://brainly.com/question/12970081
#SPJ11
determine the time constant of an lr circuit built using a 12.00 v battery, a 110.00 mh inductor and a 49.00 ohms resistor.
The time constant of the LR circuit built using a 12.00 v battery, a 110.00 mh inductor and a 49.00 ohms resistor is approximately 0.00224 seconds.
To determine the time constant of an LR circuit, we need to use the formula:
τ = L/R
where τ is the time constant, L is the inductance in henries, and R is the resistance in ohms.
In this case, we are given a 12.00 V battery, a 110.00 mH inductor, and a 49.00 ohms resistor. To convert millihenries to henries, we need to divide by 1000:
L = 110.00 mH / 1000 = 0.110 H
Now we can plug in the values:
τ = L/R = 0.110 H / 49.00 Ω = 0.00224 s
Therefore, the time constant of this LR circuit is 0.00224 s (long answer).
To know more about circuit visit :-
https://brainly.com/question/31297138
#SPJ11