To screen her for problem drinking, you would use the CAGE questionnaire.
The CAGE questionnaire is a commonly used screening tool for problem drinking and prospective alcohol issues. Its name is an abbreviation for its four questions. The questionnaire takes less than a minute to conduct and is frequently used as a rapid screening tool in primary care or other broad settings rather than as an in-depth interview for persons with alcoholism.
The CAGE questionnaire is not intended for a specific group, but rather to identify people who drink excessively and require therapy. The CAGE questionnaire is trustworthy and valid; nevertheless, it is not valid for diagnosing other drug use disorders, despite the fact that slightly modified versions of the CAGE questionnaire have been widely used for this purpose.
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A client is admitted to the emergency department having just used cocaine. The nurse should assess this client for which factors
The nurse should assess this client for
mood swingsfeeling of euphoriaincreased blood pressuretachycardiaCocaine is a stimulant of the central nervous system that is mostly used recreationally for its euphoric effects. It is principally derived from the leaves of two South American Coca species, Erythroxylum coca and Erythroxylum novogranatense.
Cocaine enhances the brain's reward circuit. An extreme sensation of happiness, sexual arousal, loss of contact with reality, or anxiety are all possible mental repercussions. Physical symptoms may include a racing heart, perspiration, and dilated pupils. Elevated dosages might cause high blood pressure and body temperature. The benefits are felt within seconds to minutes of application and last between five to ninety minutes. Because cocaine possesses numbing and blood vessel constriction qualities, it is occasionally used to decrease pain, bleeding, and vocal cord spasm during surgery on the neck or inside the nose.
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this form of treatment uses sound energy from high-frequency sound waves to treat pain, relax muscles spasms. stimulate circulation, and break up calcium deposits and scar tissue.
Ultrasound therapy is a form of treatment that utilizes sound waves to relieve pain, relax muscles, stimulate circulation, and break up calcium deposits and scar tissue.
What is ultrasound therapy and its purpose?Ultrasound therapy is a form of physical therapy that uses sound waves to treat pain and other musculoskeletal conditions. It is a non-invasive procedure which uses high-frequency sound waves to penetrate deep into the body, delivering heat to the muscle and soft tissue. This heat increases circulation, which can reduce inflammation and increase healing. Ultrasound therapy is used to treat muscle spasms, tendonitis, bursitis, arthritis, and other musculoskeletal conditions. It can also help to reduce swelling and promote healing by increasing the production of collagen, a protein found in connective tissue. In addition, ultrasound can be used to reduce pain and improve range of motion. Ultrasound therapy can be used in conjunction with other physical therapy to help speed up the healing process. It is a safe and effective form of treatment that can provide significant pain relief and improve mobility in those suffering from musculoskeletal conditions.To learn more about treatment refer to:
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In anticipation of a client returning to the room after a subtotal thyroidectomy, which intervention would be highest priority for the nurse to perform
In anticipation of a client returning to the room after a subtotal thyroidectomy, the highest priority intervention for the nurse would be be to set up a tracheostomy kit by the patient's bed.
Sometimes the parathyroid glands are unintentionally removed during thyroid surgery. A subsequent hypocalcemia may cause the glottis to contract, obstructing the airway. Edema at the surgical site may also do the same. Airway obstruction following thyroid surgery is an emergency circumstance, albeit being uncommon. A tracheostomy kit, suction tools, and oxygen should be easily accessible in the client's room. The laryngeal nerve needs to be assessed through speech, so having a pen and paper on hand is appropriate. It is recommended to adopt a semi-Fowler position to increase respiratory excursion. A patent airway, however, takes precedence over these procedures.
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The nurse manager wants to use evidence-based recommendations to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia. What is the critical first step to effectively gather evidence for guiding practice
The critical first step to effectively gather evidence for guiding practice and prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia is to conduct a thorough and systematic literature review.
This involves identifying relevant research studies, critically evaluating the quality and relevance of the studies, and synthesizing the findings to generate evidence-based recommendations. The nurse manager should start by developing a clear and specific research question related to ventilator-associated pneumonia prevention. Then, the manager should use multiple databases such as PubMed, CINAHL, and Cochrane Library to search for relevant studies. The manager should also use appropriate keywords and filters to ensure that the search is as comprehensive as possible. After identifying relevant studies, the manager should critically evaluate the quality of the studies using established tools such as the Cochrane Risk of Bias tool and the GRADE system. The manager should also consider the relevance of the studies in terms of the population, intervention, comparator, and outcome. The manager should then synthesize the findings from the studies to generate evidence-based recommendations.
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A nursing instructor is preparing a class discussion on the topic of self-determinism. Which of the following would the instructor expect to include? Select all that apply.
A)
Personal autonomy as a key value
B)
Choices based on pleasing others
C)
Activities reflect personal goals
D)
Right to refuse treatment
E)
Lack of empowerment
A nursing instructor is getting ready for a class discussion on self-determinism. The instructor would expect the following to be included:
A) Personal autonomy as a key valueC) Activities reflect personal goalsD) Right to refuse treatmentWhat exactly does it mean to practice nursing based on one's own self-determination?Within the realm of modern clinical ethics, the concept of self-determination is an important guiding principle. To oversimplify a little bit, it says that the patient should ultimately be the one to decide whether or not they will accept the prescribed therapy or care for their condition. The idea of self-determination is considered a cornerstone of clinical ethics by the majority of scholars. It is formalized in legislative frameworks and recommendations across the globe, and it has had a considerable influence on our knowledge of how to approach diverse medicoethical concerns.
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A nurse in the pediatric clinic is taking the health history of a toddler with an exacerbation of eczema. What are the nurse's priority assessments of the child
a toddler with an exacerbation of eczema priority are
Wearing cotton clothes
Tolerance of new foods are the nurse's priority assessments of the child
Children's eczema, a common symptom of allergies, frequently has connections to meals and clothing. Cotton clothing is a sign that the parents are aware of their child's allergy and are making an effort to lessen it. The ability to tolerate new foods is a sign that a youngster has outgrown some food sensitivities. Eczema does not develop due to a lack of appetite. Eczema is a sign of allergies; it is not communicable.Dry, itchy, and irritated skin are symptoms of atopic dermatitis (eczema). Despite being age-neutral, it is frequently seen in young children. The chronic condition known as atopic dermatitis occasionally flares up. Although it may irritate you, it is not contagious.
The full question was :
A nurse in the pediatric clinic is taking the health history of a toddler with an exacerbation of eczema. What are the nurse's priority assessments of the child?
Increase in appetite
Wearing cotton clothes
Tolerance of new foods
Exposure to a viral infection
Recent contact with someone with eczema
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Individuals should participate in activities __________ to improve cardiovascular fitness. A. twice a day B. three to five days a week C. two to three days a week D. seven days a week Please select the best answer from the choices provided. A B C D Mark this and return
Individuals should participate in activities three to five days a week to improve cardiovascular fitness. Thus, the correct answer is B.
Three to five days a week is the recommendation from the American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) and the American Heart Association (AHA) for adults to participate in moderate-intensity aerobic physical activity for at least 150 minutes per week, or vigorous-intensity aerobic physical activity for at least 75 minutes per week, or a combination of both, spread across at least three days of the week. This frequency of physical activity is sufficient to achieve cardiovascular fitness and improve overall health.
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Answer: b
Explanation:
A nurse is helping a physician insert a subclavian central line. After the physician has gained access to the subclavian vein, he connects a 10-ml syringe to the catheter and withdraws a sample of blood. He then disconnects the syringe from the port. Suddenly, the client becomes confused, disoriented, and pale. The nurse suspects an air embolus. She should:
Turning the client on his left side and placing the bed in Trendelenburg's position is the most important immediate action to take when dealing with an air embolus.
This position helps to move the air bubble away from the heart toward the right atrium where it can be absorbed more easily. It also helps to prevent the air bubble from further entering the vascular system, since the air bubble is lighter than blood and will tend to rise upwards. Trendelenburg's position also helps to increase venous pressure in the lower body to prevent further air from entering the vascular system.
Finally, this position helps to reduce the amount of pressure in the right atrium and ventricle, which helps to reduce symptoms associated with the air embolus. By performing these actions, the nurse is helping to reduce the risk of serious or life-threatening complications from the air embolus.
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Discuss the organizational structure that you, as the nurse administrator for SLMC, believe would be most appropriate. Use a specific organizational theory to support your decision and discuss how this structure may impact the organization's outcomes
The most appropriate organizational structure for SLMC would be a matrix organizational structure, which is based on the contingency theory.
This structure would allow SLMC to combine the strengths of both functional and divisional organizational structures, allowing for flexibility, improved communication, and the ability to respond to changes in the external environment.
This structure would also allow for more efficient decision-making processes, as well as increased coordination and collaboration between departments.
Additionally, this structure would also enable SLMC to create specialized departments and teams which are better equipped for responding to specific situations and challenges. The matrix structure would also allow for better alignment of resources with specific goals and objectives, allowing SLMC to maximize its outcomes.
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5. Which intervention regarding nutrition is implemented for clients who have undergone laryngectomy
Use enteral feedings after the procedure is implemented for clients who have undergone laryngectomy.
A laryngectomy is a surgical procedure that removes part or all of ones larynx (voice box). This procedure is used to treat laryngeal cancer and severe larynx injury. People who have a laryngectomy still can live a normal life. They must, however, learn new methods to breathe, talk, and swallow.
In 2013, over 60,000 persons in the United States had undergone a laryngectomy. Today, this figure is declining since fewer people smoke and improved surgical treatments may occasionally address diseases without removing the larynx.
Most individuals stay in the hospital for one to two weeks after having a laryngectomy. During this period, ones medical team will monitor your progress. You'll be fed through a feeding tube for the first several days. Your physician will remove the tube once you are able to swallow beverages.
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Identify and describe practice barriers for all four APNs roles in Indiana and discuss these barriers on a state and national level. The four roles include the nurse midwife, nurse anesthetist, nurse practitioner and clinical nurse specialist.
Practice barriers for APNs in Indiana include lack of full practice authority, limited reimbursement, and lack of recognition by insurance companies.
These barriers can prevent APNs from providing care to patients to the fullest extent of their education and training. On a state level, Indiana has some restrictions on the practice of APNs, such as the requirement for collaboration or supervision by a physician. This can limit the ability of APNs to provide care in certain settings or to certain populations. Nationally, there is a lack of consistency in state regulations regarding APN practice, which can make it difficult for APNs to practice across state lines or for patients to access care when they travel. Additionally, reimbursement for APN services is often lower than that for physician services, which can discourage the use of APNs in healthcare settings. These barriers can make it more difficult for APNs to provide care to patients and make it harder for patients to access the care that they need.
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Under MACRA, a medical provider who prescribes a treatment that does not adhere to traditional best-practice protocols may be evaluated negatively in comparison with other providers, even if the treatment is effective.
It is TRUE that if a medical professional recommends a treatment that follows conventional best-practice guidelines, MACRA allows for the possibility that they will be rated less favorably than other professionals.
The Medicare Access and CHIP Reauthorization Act of 2015, often known as the Permanent Doc Fix, is a piece of American legislation. Following the passage of the Affordable Care Act in 2010, the Bipartisan Act, which revised the Balanced Budget Act of 1997, made the most significant changes to the American healthcare system.
With the help of MACRA, a system that rewards high-value patient care and efficiency will replace the fee-for-service model. Medicare's provider payments under MACRA were altered in three significant ways.
Regulations relating to MACRA also cover financial incentives for doctors and other providers to use health IT. The Medicare Quality Payment Program was initiated as a result. The Merit-based Incentive Payment System (MIPS) or Advanced Alternative Payment Models (APMs) are two options for clinicians to engage in the Quality Payment Program. For doctors who qualify, MIPS is a scheme that combines three incentive systems into one. Clinicians that take part in cutting-edge payment models can receive rewards through APMs.
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Under MACRA, a medical provider who prescribes a treatment that does not adhere to traditional best-practice protocols may be evaluated negatively in comparison with other providers, even if the treatment is effective. This statement is true.
A treatment plan's key component is the relationship and trust between patients and clinicians. This association is impacted by shifting medical trends. The fundamental standards of conduct for all medical professionals are covered in this article. Medical ethical concerns frequently touch on matters of life and death. Patient rights, informed consent, confidentiality, competency, advance directives, carelessness, and many other topics are highlighted as serious health concerns. The proper actions to take in light of all the circumstances are what ethics is all about. It discusses the difference between what is proper and wrong at a particular moment and in a particular society.
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8. Your organization has 5,000 mailboxes in an Exchange Server 2010 deployment. Which of the following migration methods is appropriate given this scenario
The migration method that fits this scenario is remote move migration in a hybrid deployment.
Exchange Server 2010 is one of the most widely used enterprise email server applications. The IT Department that is responsible for Exchange 2010 management is currently facing a big challenge. In just a few months, in January 2020, Exchange 2010 will officially become EOL or "End of Life" and Microsoft will stop supporting the service. This information has been officially released on Microsoft's official website.
Generally, after the information is released, people believe they only have 2 choices: Upgrade to Exchange 2016 or migrate to Office 365. But both of these options will be very expensive.
The hybrid migration applies to all hybrid environments with on-premises Exchange servers, Exchange Online deployed, and Active Directory synced. This type of migration assumes that some of the data is stored on-premises, and the rest is in the cloud.
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After providing AM care to a client receiving mechanical ventilation via an endotracheal tube, the nurse notes a sudden decrease in the pulse oximetry reading. How will the nurse assess endotracheal tube placement
It is not a way to verify endotracheal tube placement to obtain arterial blood gases.
Endotracheal Tube (ETT) is an airway catheter that is inserted into the trachea through the mouth or nose in endotracheal intubation. The ETT is inserted into the patient's trachea to ensure that the trachea is not blocked as the respiratory tract and breathable air can enter the lungs. The ETT is the most reliable tool in ensuring the airway remains clear.
The main modality for verifying ETT placement is a combination of:
chest rises,breath sounds, andAssess tidal CO2 via capnography.This question is multiple choice:
a. End-tidal carbon dioxide levelb. Auscultate lung soundsc. Obtain arterial blood gasd. Monitor for symmetrical chest movementThe correct answer is C.
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preparing to begin chest compressions on an infant the nurse should perform compressions using which
Answer:
Place the heel of one hand on the breastbone -- just below the nipples. Make sure your heel is not at the very end of the breastbone. You may need to use both hands depending on your size and the size of the child.
Keep your other hand on the child's forehead, keeping the head tilted back.
Press down on the child's chest so that it compresses about one third to one half the depth of the chest.
Give 30 chest compressions. Each time, let the chest rise completely. These compressions should be fast and hard with no pausing. Count the 30 compressions quickly: "1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22,23,24,25,26,27,28,29,30, off''.
the nurse wants to be sure that the family understands how to use a bulb syringe properly to suction the newborn. What is the best way to determine that they understand proper bulb syringe use
The best way for the nurse to determine that the family understands proper bulb syringe use is to provide a demonstration and hands-on instruction. The nurse can start by explaining the purpose of using a bulb syringe, the steps involved in using it, and the precautions that must be taken.
Then, the nurse can demonstrate the proper technique for using the bulb syringe on a doll or a model of a newborn. After the demonstration, the family should be given the opportunity to practice using the bulb syringe with the guidance and supervision of the nurse. This will allow the nurse to observe their technique and provide feedback. The nurse can also provide visual aids such as diagrams or videos to help the family understand the proper technique. Additionally, the nurse can ask the family questions about the use of the bulb syringe to assess their understanding and provide further clarification if needed.
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Loss of staff members because of injuries from a lack of SPHM practices increases ________ for the healthcare system
Loss of staff members because of injuries from a lack of SPHM practices increases cost for the healthcare system.
Loss of staff members because of injuries from a lack of Standard Precautions and Hazardous Materials (SPHM) practices increases costs for the healthcare system. When staff members are injured, they may require medical care and may be unable to work for a period of time, which can lead to increased costs for the healthcare system in terms of worker's compensation, lost productivity, and the need to hire temporary or replacement staff.
During an interview, tears appear in the patient's eyes and his voice becomes shaky. Initially, you should:
A primary nurse receives prescriptions for a newly admitted client and has difficulty reading the healthcare provider's writing. Who should the nurse ask for clarification of this prescription
The healthcare provider who wrote the prescription should be called for clarification.
When a patient receiving intravenous vancomycin complains of ringing in both ears, what should the nurse do first?
Patients should discontinue taking vancomycin if they experience balance problems, hearing loss, or tinnitus in their ears. Ototoxicity brought on by vancomycin treatment may occasionally be irreversible.
Which move would the nurse make when preparing to administer a vancomycin infusion in order to prevent red man syndrome?
Red man syndrome can be avoided with the first dosage of vancomycin by giving patients diphenhydramine (1 g over 1 hour) prior to starting the infusion
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The staff development coordinator plans to teach use of physical management techniques for use when patients become assaultive. Which topic should the coordinator emphasize
When patients become aggressive, the staff development coordinator should emphasize practice and teamwork to improve management techniques.
The use of manual intervention to control and limit undesirable behavior is known as physical management. In a crisis, using sound techniques can help to reduce injury and liability. Physical management training has numerous advantages for your company. If done correctly, it can produce competent and confident staff capable of handling crisis situations, as well as reduce staff fear by relieving anxiety caused by confusion and indecision. Physical management is an important tool for creating and maintaining a safe work environment.
In general, physical management is part of a use-of-force continuum. According to the organizations involved, these can range from verbal or nonverbal techniques to, eventually, lethal force.
For example, most security organizations consider the first technique to be officer presence, with lethal force as a last resort.
The staff development coordinator plans to teach use of physical management techniques for use when patients become assaultive. Which topic should the coordinator emphasize?
a. Practice and teamwork
b. Spontaneity and surprise
c. Caution and superior size
d. Diversion and physical outlets
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A nurse manager is experiencing considerable conflict among staff members because of weekend staffing coverage. During a called staff meeting, the nurse manager asks the disgruntled staff to meet as a group and determine the best staffing practices. In doing this, the nurse manager is using the concept of collaboration to:
The nurse manager is utilizing collaboration to focus the energies of staff members on a win-win strategy.
Collaboration is the process of working together to achieve a common goal. By asking the staff to meet as a group and work together to determine the best staffing practices, the nurse manager is encouraging them to work together to come up with a solution that will benefit everyone. This encourages staff members to communicate and share ideas in order to find the best solution. It also helps to create a sense of teamwork and unity within the staff.
By doing this, the nurse manager is ensuring that all staff members have the opportunity to have their voices heard, and that all ideas are taken into consideration. Ultimately, this collaborative approach ensures that all staff members are working together towards a common goal, and that the outcome will be one that is favorable for everyone.
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A nurse evaluates whether a middle-age client with chronic back pain has been performing the different exercises and physiotherapy procedures recommended by the physician. What would the nurse most likely use to evaluate the client
A nurse evaluates whether a middle-age client with chronic back pain has been performing the recommended things by the physician, so she would use return demonstration to evaluate the client.
Return demonstration is an essential element of the nursing practice that paves way for pupil nursers to gain knowledge of the nursing procedures. It enables them to grasp ideas of what nursers do in the hospitals or communities when they take care of cases and of how they do these procedures to them.
Physiotherapy ( PT) is a healthcare profession, which encompasses colorful treatment modalities similar as massages, heat remedy, exercises, electrotherapy, patient education, and advice for treating an injury, disease, or disfigurement.
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Gottfredson and Hirschi trace the root cause of poor self-control to inadequate: A. nutrition and health care B. intelligence C. child rearing practices D. education
Self-control issues can be traced back to ineffective parenting methods. Children who don't understand that they can't always get what they want as adults appear to be less able to restrain their urges. So, the correct option is (c) child-rearing practices.
These kids (and adults) want instant pleasure, which might result in criminal or antisocial behaviour down the road. Ineffective parenting methods include-
Encouragement Deficit- A child requires strong support from adoring adults in order to internalize the idea that he has real skills and abilities. Persistent criticism-The relationship between a healthy self-concept and confidence is straightforward. Negative comparisons, parental anxiety, unrealistic expectations, and overprotection.
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A nurse is teaching a new mother about what to expect for bowel elimination in her newborn. Because the mother is breastfeeding, what should the nurse tell her about the newborn's stools
The nurse informed her that the newborn's faeces must be yellow-gold, loose, & stringy to pasty.
The neonatal phase is explained as an infant's first four weeks of life in this world. Many complicated physiologic changes occur during this period, and the newborn reacts with many stimuli. During this time, care should be constant and effective.
Growth characteristics and behaviors' are evaluated at birth. In the case of a normal spontaneous vaginal birth or a Cesarean section without difficulties, the examination is postponed until one hour after skin-to-skin contact with the mother is established, and nursing is initiated if suitable and requested. In the first twenty-four hours of life, a paediatrician or nurse practitioner checks the infant. A team having knowledge of the equipment, training, & resources is now in charge of assessing and attending to any neonatal resuscitation attempts required at the time of birth.
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Which breed is promoted for small-scale operations?
Bourbon
Black Turkey
Bronze
Slate
The most commonly promoted breed for small-scale operations is the Bronze turkey.
What are the advantages of promoting a specific breed for small-scale operations?
1. Increased Efficiency: Keeping the same breed makes it easier to predict production, feed needs, and other factors that can help small-scale operations maximize efficiency.
2. Improved Genetics: By selecting and promoting a specific breed, small-scale operations can have access to improved genetics, which can lead to better health and higher production levels.
3. Reduced Labor Costs: By using a specific breed, small-scale operations can reduce labor costs by eliminating the need to learn and manage multiple breeds.
4. Reduced Feed Costs: By using a specific breed, small-scale operations can reduce feed costs by having a better understanding of the breed’s nutritional requirements.
5. Increased Revenues: By promoting a specific breed, small-scale operations can increase revenues by establishing a reputation for quality and consistency.
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As a nurse manager, you trial a new pain scale on your unit that is supported by numerous research studies. You compare the patient outcomes with the new scale against the existing scale. Feedback from staff suggests that the new scale is too difficult for patients who have limited language skills and who are already under duress to understand. The difficulty in implementing the new scale refers to testing:
Testing the effectiveness of a new pain scale involves several steps. First, the nurse manager must compare the patient outcomes associated with the existing scale to those associated with the new scale.
This comparison should include both short- and long-term outcomes, such as patient satisfaction, pain relief, and any other relevant measures. Second, the nurse manager should collect feedback from staff on the new scale's usability and understandability.
This would include assessing staff's comfort level with the new scale, as well as patient feedback on the same. Finally, the nurse manager should assess the difficulty of implementing the new scale. This may include determining the amount of training required for staff to effectively use the new scale, as well as any issues related to patient comprehension.
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The nurse is assessing a new client who is being admitted with gestational hypertension. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize for this client
The nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize for this client is Deficient fluid volume related to vasospasm of arteries.
What is gestational hypertension?Many manufacturers of automated external defibrillators (AEDs), including Cardiac Science, Defibtech, Harstine, Physio-Control, and Zoll, provide units that come in semi-automatic and fully-automatic variations. The AED automatically assesses the patient's cardiac rhythm and determines whether a shock is required while the pads are in place. If so, the device instructs the user to take a step back and press a button to give the shock.If a shock is not required, the AED is programmed not to give one. Semi-automatic AEDs will need the user to activate a button before shocking the victim, leaving it up to them to administer the treatment. On the other hand, fully automatic AEDs will carry out the entire procedure automatically, including administering the shock.
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Both illegal and prescription/over-the-counter drugs can have negative effects on your ability to drive. T/F
The statement is true that both illegal and prescription/over-the-counter drugs can have negative effects on your ability to drive.
Antidepressants, opioids, and other drugs may beget impairment.However, or get a tradition for a new drug or a advanced cure of a current medicine, don't drive until you know what effect it has on your judgment, If you're taking a tradition medicine.
Illegal drugs are those that aren't specified by a croaker or bought at a apothecary. They're occasionally also called" road medicines." Some exemplifications of illegal medicines include heroin( an opioid); cocaine( a goad); LSD, mescaline, PCP, methamphetamine, and psilocybin( hallucinogens).
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what did you do with the dress you __ from me?
Answer:
took
Explanation:
they took your clothes
What did you do with the dress you took from me? is the correct answer.
What is verb?A verb is a word that describes an action, state, or occurrence. In grammar, verbs are considered the most important part of a sehttps://brainly.com/question/14574299?referrer=searchResultntence, as they indicate the subject's activity or being.
"Took" is the past tense of the verb "to take." It is used to indicate that an action of taking something happened in the past. For example, "I took the book from the shelf" or "He took the keys and left the house." In grammar, "took" is a regular verb, which means its past tense is formed by adding -ed to the base form "take."
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As you have been learning about both the skeletal and muscular system for this discussion you will talk about the difference between the two and also how they work together.
The skeletal system is the body's framework of bones, cartilage, and other tissues that support the body and help it move. It is made up of the bones of the body, as well as cartilage, a connective tissue that helps cushion and protect the bones. The skeletal system provides support and structure to the body and helps to protect the internal organs. It also plays a vital role in movement, as the bones provide a surface for the muscles to attach to and work against.
The muscular system is made up of muscles that are responsible for movement, posture, and stability. It is made up of three types of muscles: skeletal muscles, smooth muscles, and cardiac muscles. Skeletal muscles are responsible for voluntary movement, such as moving the arms and legs. Smooth muscles are responsible for involuntary movement, such as the movement of food through the digestive system. Cardiac muscle is found only in the heart and is responsible for pumping blood throughout the body.
The skeletal and muscular systems work together to allow the body to move and function properly. The bones of the skeletal system provide a surface for the muscles to attach to and work against, while the muscles of the muscular system contract and relax to move the bones. This movement allows us to walk, run, jump, and perform other physical activities. The skeletal system also provides protection for the muscles, as the bones help to hold the muscles in place and prevent them from tearing or overextending.
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