please help me with this i need help with it+ send the answers not the explnation please

Answer:

the answer is 41,685.56 but rounded to the nearest dollar is 41,686

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps

The answer fam is........... 5 To find the distance between (10,5) and (6,2) use the "Distance formula"

Answer:

96 and 288

Step-by-step explanation:

So, we need to find 2 numbers such that their sum is 8 and they do not have common factor (Relatively prime). Both these numbers will be divisible by 48 but there would be no other common divisor (after dividing by 48).

Such order independent pairs are (1,7) and (3,5).

Difference between them would be (7–1)*48=6*48 and (5–3)*48=2*48 respectively.

The differences are 6*48=288 and 2*48=96.

We have found difference without finding numbers.

Ans.: 96 and 288

p.s.: The number pairs (again order neutral) would be (48, 336) and (144, 240)

Difference for 48 and 336 add up to 384, their HCF is 48. These two numbers match the conditions. Their difference is 288.

Difference of 144 and 240 add up to 384, their HFC is 48 (the numbers are 48*3 and 48*5, common factor is 48 and no other common factor for 3 and 5; 48 is HCF). The difference is 96.

Answer:

i^15=-i

i^32=1

1^99=-i

i^22=-1

hope this helps :)

im sorry for the late answer, i put all the answers incase some one needs them, have a nice day!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: The answer is "1".

Step-by-step explanation:

Correct on edgen.

Answer:

The conclusion that both groups of overweight and non - overweight got cardiovascular benefit from playing DDR games requires Inferential statistics.

Step-by-step explanation:

Inferential statistics is simply a type of research statistic whereby a generalized conclusion is made about a larger group based on representative observations

Now,in the given question, we see that both group hearts were above the minimum recommended for cardiovascular exercise. Now we can infer that the DDR games played by both groups gave them cardiovascular benefits. This conclusion is an example of Inferential statistics where we generalize about a large population based on observations from a small sample.

Thus the conclusion that both groups of overweight and non-overweight got cardiovascular benefit from playing DDR games requires Inferential statistics.

Answer:   y= -1/2x + 1  

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation will be represented in slope intercept form because the line is not going through the origin.

Find two points on the line and use them to find the slope since we already know that the y-intercept is 1 because that is where the line intersects the y-axis.

The points  (0,1)  and (2,0)  will be used to find the slope because it is on the line.

The slope will be the difference between the  y coordinates divided by the difference of the x coordinates.  

1- 0 = 1

0 - 3 = -2

Slope:  -1/2  

The equation will be  y= -1/2x + 1

Answer:

Negative numbers cannot have square roots.

Step-by-step explanation:

Anything multiplied by itself will always equal a positive number, not negative.

Answer:

3032

Step-by-step explanation:

379 x 8 = 3032

use math, also box method

Answer:

2000 dollars

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:No. A strong correlation does not imply causation.

Step-by-step explanation:

Cause and effect relationship is not explained by correlations. A cause and effect relationship can only be established by carrying out carefully controlled experiments.

Hence, a strong correlation between the the intake of soda and accidents does not necessarily imply that soda intake causes accident.

A lurking variable in this study may be the speed of the drivers. A lurking variable is not controlled but significantly impacts results obtained from the study.

Since the speed of the drivers is not strictly controlled, it may just be a lurking variable.

Answer:

It would be C

Step-by-step explanation:

123.456 RONDED TO THE NEAREST HUNDREDTH.

Answer:

123.46

Answer:

123.46 is probably the answer

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  [0, 1]

Step-by-step explanation:

The sine function can take on any value between -1 and 1. Then the absolute value of the sine function will have a range from 0 to 1, inclusive.

In interval form, the range of sin(x) is [0, 1].

Answer:

D on edge

3(n – 2) ≥ 5n

Step-by-step explanation:

the next question's answer is  B

Answer:

8u

3

+10u

2

y

−

˙

9u

2

y+11uy

2

+

˙

4uy

2

+8y

3

Answer:

[tex]8u^{3}+u^{2} y+15uy^{2}+8y^{3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

You must combine like terms:

[tex](8u^{2}-9u^{2}y)-(-4uy^{2}-8y^{3})+(10u^{2}y+11uy^{2})= \\8u^{3} -9u^{2} y+4uy^{2} +8y^{3}+10u^{2}y+11uy^{2}\\\\10u^{2}y-9u^{2} y= u^{2}y \\4uy^{2}+11uy^{2}= 15uy^{2} \\\\8u^{3} -9u^{2} y+10u^{2} y+4uy^{2} +11uy^{2} +8y^{3} =8u^{3} +u^{2} y+15uy^{2} +8y^{3}[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Homework Weekend Create a short story.

Answer:

3(x-2)+6=6x-9

[tex]3x - 6 +6 =6 x - 9 \\ 3x - 6x = - 9 \\ - 3x = - 9 \\ x = - 9 \div - 3 = 3[/tex]

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

if you do 48 divided by 8 it equals 6 so therefore the number that would increase it would be 6 because 6x8 equals 48.

hope this helps

Answer:

13/15 > 4/5 is a true stament.

Step-by-step explanation:

The left side is 0.86 repeating turned into a decimal. which means 0.86 is greater than the right which the right is 0.8 turned into a decimal. which in this case this means that the given stament is always true.

Answer: 18

Steps: 54/3=18

1 8

3/54

-3

24

-24

0

Answer:

radical sign of -233

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

We have to find the value of the expression i^{233}i

233

We know that the below values.

i

2

=−1

i

4

=1

​

Hence, in order to find the value of the given expression, we can first rewrite it in terms of i^4i

4

i^{233}=(i^4)^{58}

233

=(i

4

)

58

⋅i

Now, we know that i^4=1i

4

=1

Hence, we have

i^{233}=(1)^{58}

233

=(1)

58

⋅i

i^{233}=

233

=1⋅i

i^{233}=ii

233

=i

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Exchange rate = 1 U.S. dollar per 0.9009 foreign currency

i. U.S. Currency (in dollars) = 73.00

   Foreign currency = 81.03

ii. U.S. Currency (in dollars) = 20.00

   Foreign currency = 22.20

2. Exchange rate = 1 U.S. dollar per 1.3699 foreign currency

i. U.S. Currency (in dollars) = 30.00

   Foreign currency = 21.90

ii. U.S. Currency (in dollars) = 50.00

   Foreign currency = 36.50

3. Exchange rate = 1 U.S. dollar per 1.5873 foreign currency

i. U.S. Currency (in dollars) = 25.00

   Foreign currency = 15.75

4. Exchange rate = 1 U.S. dollar per 1.11 Australian dollar

i. U.S. Currency (in dollars) = 72.00

   Equivalent Australian dollar = 72.00 x 1.11 = 79.92

Answer:

?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

40 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I am confused in many ways

Answer: x=18

im assuming that this is a right angle

so if it is then that means the total of the angle should be 90 degrees. so 2x+3x should be equal to 90. Just combine like terms to get that 5x=90 and then isolate the variable (divide by 5 on both sides) so x ends up equaling 18.

so x=18

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

From the given information:

We are  told that there exist two machines

Machine 1 and Machine 2

Given that machine 1 pays 10% when it is generous, then the probability  can be computed as:

P(pays | machine 1 is generous) = 0.10

Also, machine 2 pays 20% when it is generous, then the probability that the machine pays 20% when it is generous is :

P(pays | machine 2 is generous) = 0.20

However, the two machines have an equal chance of being generous.

Therefore, the probability that machine 1 is generous is equal to the probability that machine 2 is also generous.

i.e.

P( machine 1 is generous) = P( machine 2 is generous) = 0.50

The first objective is to find the probability that the machine 1 is generous, given that the player loses the first bet.

i.e. P (machine 1 is generous | but lost)

Thus, we know that the probability that the machine is generous is = 0.5, therefore, the probability that the machine is generous is 50% when he loses the first bet.

Therefore, to find the probability that the machine 1 is generous | but lost, we have:

[tex]\mathbf{P(machine \ 1 \ is \ generous | lost) = \dfrac{P(machine \ 1 \ is \ generous \ \cap lost )}{P(lost)} }[/tex]

Let:

P(lost | machine 1 is generous) = A

P(machine 1 is generous) = B

P (Pays | machine 1 is generous ) = C

P(Pays | machine 2 is generous )  = D

P(machine 2 is generous) = E

[tex]\mathbf{P(machine \ 1 \ is \ generous | lost) = \dfrac{(1 - C) \times B}{ (1 - C) \times B + (1 - D) \times E} }[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{P(machine \ 1 \ is \ generous | lost) = \dfrac{(1 - 0.10) \times 0.50}{ (1 - 0.10) \times 0.50 + (1 - 0.20) \times 0.50} }[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{P(machine \ 1 \ is \ generous | lost) = \dfrac{0.45}{0.85}}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{P(machine \ 1 \ is \ generous | lost) =0.5294}[/tex]

Thus, the probability that machine 1 loses the first bet but it is generous = 0.5294

Thus, since the answer is close to 0.50, we say that the answer is consistent with what is expected.