Premium, Inc. produced 1,000 units of the company's product in 2024 . The standard quantity of direct materials was three yards of cloth per unit at a standard cost of $1.05 per yard. The accounting records showed that 2,400 yards of cloth were used and the company paid $1.10 per yard. Standard time was two direct labor hours per unit at a standard rate of $12.50 per direct labor hour. Employees worked 1,900 hours and were paid $11.00 per hour. Read the requirements. Requirement 1. What are the benefits of setting cost standards?

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Answer 1

$105.92 is the total cost per unit, including selling and administrative costs.

Unit revenue: $235

Total income: $235 multiplied by 24,000 units equals $5,640,000

The total cost of the items sold was $2,421,120 ($100.92 x 24,000 units).

Gross income: $5,640,000 minus $2,421,120 equals $3,218,880.

Lessening selling and overhead costs: $5 times 24,000 units is $120,000.

$3,218,880 in net income less $120,000 equals $3,098,880.

So, using absorption costing, the income statement for Rey Company looks like this:

Income Statement (Absorption Costing) for REY COMPANY

Profit: $5,640,000

Selling price per unit: $2,421,120

Total revenue: $3,218,880

Lessening selling and management costs: $120,000

Profit: $3,098,880

Second, cost standards aid in raising productivity and performance. Organisations create standards that serve as goals that inspire workers to work towards reaching them. Standards can also be useful in identifying production process inefficiencies that can be fixed to increase productivity and lower costs.

Thirdly, performance can be assessed and rewarded using cost standards. Organisations can identify people or departments that perform well and those that need improvement by comparing actual expenses to the standards. Employees and departments that uphold the standards can receive rewards, and those who don't can receive training or reprimands.

In conclusion, establishing cost standards is an essential tool for organisations to manage and control expenses, boost productivity, and assess and reward employee performance.

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the best income tax filing status for a married couple where both are high earners and at least one has large personal deductions is:

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The best income tax filing status for a married couple where both are high earners and at least one has large personal deductions is "Married Filing Jointly."

"Married Filing Jointly" is generally the most advantageous filing status for married couples when both partners have high incomes and significant personal deductions. By filing jointly, the couple can combine their incomes and deductions, which may result in a lower overall tax liability compared to filing separately.

When both spouses have high incomes, filing separately could potentially result in a higher tax burden due to limitations on certain tax benefits and higher tax rates for separate filers.

Filing jointly allows for a wider range of deductions and tax credits, such as the standard deduction, itemized deductions, and various credits, which can help reduce the couple's overall tax liability.

Furthermore, if one spouse has significant personal deductions, such as large medical expenses or mortgage interest, filing jointly allows for the full utilization of those deductions, potentially resulting in additional tax savings.

However, it is important to consult with a tax professional or use tax software to determine the specific tax implications and benefits based on the couple's individual circumstances.

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explain the relationship between a company's growth possibilities and its dividend policy.

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Companies with high growth possibilities tend to reinvest their earnings back into the business and offer lower dividends, while companies with lower growth possibilities tend to offer higher dividends to attract investors.

Dividend policy refers to the practices and decisions made by a company regarding the payment of dividends to its shareholders. Companies with high growth possibilities usually reinvest their earnings back into the business in order to fuel future growth.

This means that they may offer lower dividends or no dividends at all to their shareholders, as they prefer to use the cash to finance new projects or expand operations. This is because they believe that reinvesting the earnings will lead to greater long-term benefits for the company and its shareholders.

On the other hand, companies with lower growth possibilities tend to have less need for reinvestment and may offer higher dividends to attract investors. This is because they believe that their current business model is likely to generate stable, predictable cash flows in the long term, and therefore, they can afford to distribute a larger portion of their earnings to shareholders in the form of dividends.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. It is best if members of a product development team are placed in ____________ (one or many?) location(s).

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It is best if members of a product development team are placed in one location.

Having members of a product development team located in one place is generally considered advantageous. When team members are collocated, they can easily and efficiently collaborate, communicate, and share ideas. This proximity facilitates quick decision-making, problem-solving, and promotes a sense of unity and shared purpose among team members. Face-to-face interactions enable real-time feedback and foster a deeper understanding of each team member's expertise and perspectives.

Additionally, collocated teams benefit from the informal interactions and spontaneous discussions that naturally occur in a shared physical space. These impromptu exchanges often lead to creative solutions and innovation. Being in close proximity allows team members to build strong working relationships, trust, and a sense of camaraderie, which can enhance team dynamics and productivity.

While technology enables remote collaboration and virtual teams, there are certain limitations and challenges associated with distributed teams. Communication barriers, time zone differences, cultural nuances, and the absence of non-verbal cues can hinder effective collaboration and impede the development process. Therefore, placing members of a product development team in one location is generally considered the optimal arrangement for maximizing their potential and fostering successful outcomes.

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determine the dependent variable (e.g., product sales, consumer liking of a product) (8 points). what is the dependent variable?

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Without specific context or information about the study or research being conducted, it is challenging to determine the dependent variable. The dependent variable is the variable that is being measured or observed and is expected to change in response to the independent variable(s) in a study. It is the outcome or result that researchers are interested in understanding or explaining.

In order to identify the dependent variable, it is important to know the research question or hypothesis being investigated. For example, if the study aims to examine the impact of advertising on product sales, the dependent variable would likely be "product sales." Researchers would measure and analyze the changes in product sales based on different advertising strategies or treatments.

In another scenario, if the study focuses on assessing consumer liking of a product, the dependent variable would be "consumer liking." Researchers might use surveys, ratings, or other measurement techniques to gather data on consumers' opinions and preferences regarding the product.

Therefore, without additional context or information about the specific study, it is not possible to determine the dependent variable.

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If the government imposes a per-unit tax on personal computers, consumer surplus in the personal computer market will
A. decrease, because the price paid by consumers for personal computers will have increased
B. decrease, because there will be more personal computers on the market
C. increase, because personal computer manufacturers will pass the tax on to consumers
D. increase, because consumers will buy more imported personal computers
E. not change because the demand is unit elastic

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If the government imposes a per-unit tax on personal computers, consumer surplus in the personal computer market will decrease, because the price paid by consumers for personal computers will have increased. (option A)

When a per-unit tax is imposed on personal computers, it increases the cost of production for manufacturers or sellers. This increase in cost is typically passed on to consumers in the form of higher prices. As a result, the price paid by consumers for personal computers will increase.

With higher prices, consumers are willing to purchase fewer personal computers at each price level, leading to a decrease in consumer surplus. Consumer surplus is the difference between the maximum price consumers are willing to pay for a good and the actual price they pay.

When prices increase due to the tax, consumer surplus is reduced as consumers are no longer able to obtain personal computers at the lower prices they were previously willing to pay.

Therefore, the correct answer is A.

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A. decrease, because the price paid by consumers for personal computers will have increased.

When the government imposes a per-unit tax on personal computers, the price paid by consumers will increase. This increase in price reduces consumer surplus, which is the difference between the maximum price consumers are willing to pay and the actual price they pay.

As the price rises due to the tax, consumers will be willing to purchase fewer personal computers at a higher price, leading to a decrease in consumer surplus.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. decrease, because the price paid by consumers for personal computers will have increased.

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the difference between reported net income on variable costing and absorption costing income statements is based on how blank______.

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The difference between reported net income on variable costing and absorption costing income statements is based on how fixed manufacturing overhead costs are treated.

Under absorption costing, fixed manufacturing overhead costs are included in the cost of goods sold, meaning that they are allocated to the units produced and sold. This results in higher reported net income when production levels are high, as more units are absorbing the fixed overhead costs.

In contrast, variable costing only includes variable costs in the cost of goods sold. Fixed manufacturing overhead costs are instead expensed in the period they are incurred as period costs, rather than being allocated to units produced. This results in lower reported net income when production levels are high, as fixed overhead costs are not being absorbed by a greater number of units.

In summary, the difference between reported net income on variable costing and absorption costing income statements is based on the treatment of fixed manufacturing overhead costs, and whether they are allocated to units produced and sold or expensed as period costs.

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For a risky asset assume that E[r:) = 0.25,1 = 0.05 and E(TM) = 0.15. W hat is the beta (BB) for this asset? 1.5 2 1.9 2.9

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The value of beta (BB) for this asset is 2.

So, the correct answer is B.

To calculate the beta (BB) for a risky asset with an expected return (E[r:]) of 0.25, a risk-free rate (1) of 0.05, and an expected market return (E(TM)) of 0.15

We use the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula:

BB = (E[r:] - 1) / (E(TM) - 1).

Plugging in the values, we get BB = (0.25 - 0.05) / (0.15 - 0.05) = 2.

This means that the asset is twice as volatile as the market, and investors will demand a higher return to compensate for the additional risk.

Therefore, the answer is B) 2, which indicates that the asset's returns are expected to be twice as volatile as the market portfolio's returns. This means the asset is considered riskier compared to the overall market.

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A company issues 1,000,000 shares of $0.90 par value, cumulative preferred stock for $15,000,000. The stated dividend is $1 per share. Which journal entry is needed for the sale? O O O O A. debit Cash $15,000,000 and credit Preferred Stock $15,000,000 B. debit Cash $15,000,000, credit Preferred Stock $500,000 and credit Paid - in Capital in Excess of Par-Preferred $14,500,000 C. debit Cash $15,000,000 and credit Paid - in Capital in Excess of Par-Preferred $15,000,000 D. debit Cash $15,000,000 and credit Retained Earnings $15,000,000

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The correct journal entry is to debit Cash for $15,000,000, credit Preferred Stock for $500,000 (par value), and credit Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par-Preferred for $14,500,000 (excess amount).

Which journal entry correctly records the sale of 1,000,000 shares of $0.90 par value, cumulative preferred stock for $15,000,000, considering the stated dividend of $1 per share?

The correct journal entry for the sale of 1,000,000 shares of $0.90 par value, cumulative preferred stock for $15,000,000 would be:

B. debit Cash $15,000,000, credit Preferred Stock $500,000, and credit Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par-Preferred $14,500,000.

Explanation:

When the preferred stock is issued, the company receives cash, which is debited for $15,000,000. The par value of the preferred stock is calculated by multiplying the par value ($0.90) by the number of shares (1,000,000), resulting in $900,000. However, since the stock is issued at a higher price than its par value, the excess amount is recorded as Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par-Preferred. The excess amount is the difference between the total cash received ($15,000,000) and the par value of the stock ($900,000), which is $14,100,000.

Therefore, the correct journal entry is to debit Cash for $15,000,000, credit Preferred Stock for $500,000 (par value), and credit Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par-Preferred for $14,500,000 (excess amount).

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if the market price for super bowl tickets is $2,000, and the equilibrium price is $3,000, there will be a(n) ________ of super bowl tickets

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If the market price for Super Bowl tickets is $2,000 and the equilibrium price is $3,000, there will be a shortage of Super Bowl tickets.

A market is said to be in equilibrium when the quantity demanded is equal to the quantity supplied. In this case, the market is not in equilibrium because the market price is lower than the equilibrium price.

A shortage occurs when the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied. In other words, there are more buyers in the market than there are sellers. This creates an imbalance, and buyers who are willing to pay the equilibrium price of $3,000 are unable to find tickets. The shortage will create upward pressure on prices as buyers compete to secure tickets. As a result, the price of Super Bowl tickets is likely to increase until it reaches the equilibrium price of $3,000.

In conclusion, a shortage of Super Bowl tickets will occur if the market price is $2,000 and the equilibrium price is $3,000. This is because the market is not in equilibrium, and there are more buyers than sellers in the market. The shortage will lead to an increase in the price of tickets until it reaches the equilibrium price.

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Assume that the economy is at full employment. Policymakers wish to maintain the price level but want to encourage greater investment. Which of the following combinations of monetary and fiscal policies would best achieve this goal?A.Monetary Policy Fiscal Policy No change ContractionaryB.Monetary Policy Fiscal Policy Expansionary No changeC.Monetary Policy Fiscal Policy Expansionary ContractionaryD.Monetary Policy Fiscal Policy Expansionary ExpansionaryE.Monetary Policy Fiscal Policy Contractionary Expansionary

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option B, expansionary monetary policy combined with no change in fiscal policy, would be the best combination to encourage investment while maintaining the price level.

If the economy is at full employment and policymakers wish to maintain the price level but encourage greater investment, the best combination of monetary and fiscal policies would be option B: Monetary Policy Expansionary and Fiscal Policy No change. Expansionary monetary policy involves increasing the money supply and lowering interest rates, which would make it cheaper for businesses and individuals to borrow money, encouraging investment. At the same time, a no change in fiscal policy would ensure that government spending and taxes remain the same, not affecting the economy's current state.
Contractionary monetary policy and fiscal policy, as well as an expansionary monetary policy combined with contractionary fiscal policy (options A and C), would likely cause a decrease in investment due to the increase in borrowing costs and decrease in government spending. Option D, which involves expansionary monetary and fiscal policies, may lead to an increase in investment but also a potential rise in the price level due to increased demand.
Finally, option E, which involves contractionary monetary policy and expansionary fiscal policy, may encourage investment, but the increase in government spending could potentially lead to inflation, counteracting the goal of maintaining the price level.

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__(Scenario: Future Expected Exchange Rate) If the spot rate is $1.24, then the expected dollar return on euro deposits is: 4%. 7.1%. 0.71%. 0.129%. 0.71%.

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To determine the expected dollar return on euro deposits, we need to multiply the spot rate by the interest rate differential. The interest rate differential is the difference between the interest rates in the two countries, in this case, the United States and the Eurozone.

Since the question does not provide information about the interest rate in the United States, we cannot calculate the interest rate differential.  Therefore, we cannot determine the expected dollar return on euro deposits. The answer cannot be determined based on the information given.

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An attorney with a long and impressive track record, Tracey is serving as an arbitrator and helping to resolve a dispute between an inventor and a large corporation that he claims has stolen his idea. After a great deal of argument from both sides, Tracey receives offers from both sides. The inventor asks for damages of $3 million, royalties of 10 percent on the invention for the next 10 years, and a written apology, whereas the company offers to pay $125 million, with royalties of 7 percent for 5 years, as well as a written apology. After considering both offers and the arguments behind them. Tracey determines that the company's offer is fair, and an agreement is reached. This is an example of Multiple Choice convention arbitration distributive mediation

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If an inventor and a corporation dispute is resolved by an attorney arbitrator who determines the corporation's offer is fair, this is an example of convention arbitration.

In this scenario, Tracey is serving as an arbitrator to resolve a dispute between an inventor and a large corporation. Arbitration is a process of resolving disputes in which an impartial third party, called an arbitrator, hears arguments from both sides and makes a decision that is binding on both parties.

Convention arbitration is a type of arbitration in which the parties agree in advance to abide by the arbitrator's decision, and the decision is usually final and cannot be appealed.

In this case, Tracey listened to arguments from both sides and considered the offers made by each party. She determined that the company's offer was fair and reached an agreement. This is an example of convention arbitration, as both parties had agreed to abide by Tracey's decision.

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How would you respond to this customer?

Role-Playing Scenario #2 – The Dissatisfied Customer
A customer has bought a GPS system for his tractor and claims that it doesn’t comply with the characteristics specified by the manufacturer. Remember that not all is lost in this scenario. Instead of simply issuing a refund, try to find out the nature of the dissatisfaction and recommend a better alternative.

Customer: Hi there, I bought this GPS system 3 days ago, but it doesn’t perform as well as described on the website. I chose my platform and the coordinates I would be plotting, but the system doesn’t come anywhere close to hitting the frame rate that the manufacturer said it would even on the lowest graphic settings. I’d like to return it.

Answers

Dear valued customer,

I apologize for the inconvenience you have experienced with the GPS system you purchased from us. I understand that it has not met your expectations in terms of its performance. However, before proceeding with a refund, I would like to ask a few questions to better understand the nature of your dissatisfaction.

Can you provide me with some details on the specific issues you are facing? Is the system failing to provide accurate coordinates or is the frame rate simply too slow? Have you tried adjusting any of the settings on the system to see if that helps improve its performance?

Based on your response, we may be able to recommend a better alternative that better suits your needs. We have a range of GPS systems available that offer different features and specifications. Our team is always ready to help you find the best solution to meet your needs.

Thank you for your patience and understanding. We look forward to hearing from you soon.

Best regards,
Ginny

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the conditions of a property policy would list all of the following except: a: nonrenewal conditions b: liberalization c: subrogation d: property description

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The condition of a property policy that lists all of the following except "property description" is "liberalization." Option b is Correct.

Property insurance policies typically have several conditions that must be met in order for the policy to be valid and for the insurer to be obligated to pay out claims. Some of these conditions include:

Nonrenewal conditions: These conditions specify the circumstances under which the insurer can cancel the policy, such as nonpayment of premiums or material misrepresentations made on the insurance application.

Liberalization: These conditions specify the types of activities that are covered under the policy, as well as the types of losses that are eligible for coverage. Liberalization can also refer to the expansion of coverage to include new types of risks or to new geographic areas.

Subrogation: These conditions specify the circumstances under which the insurer can recover damages from third parties who are responsible for the loss. Option b is Correct.

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assessing risk should include testing of technology assets to identify any vulnerabilities.

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True. Testing technology assets for vulnerabilities should be part of the risk assessment process.

What kinds of technological assets are there?

Infrastructure hardware, software, networking, cloud devices, and even non-IT assets such as buildings are examples of assets.

Computer systems, networks, and software are vulnerable to a variety of risks, including cybersecurity threats, data breaches, system failures, and technological obsolescence. Testing these assets identifies vulnerabilities, weaknesses, and potential points of failure, allowing organizations to put in place the necessary controls, safeguards, and mitigation strategies to manage and reduce the risks.

Therefore, assessing risk should include testing of technology assets to identify any vulnerabilities.

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In a world with taxes, interest tax shield tends to reduce a firmʹs weighted average cost of capital.a. Trueb. False

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True. The interest tax shield is the tax savings that a company receives due to the tax-deductibility of interest payments on debt. This results in a reduction of the company's overall tax liability. As a result, the after-tax cost of debt is lower than the cost of equity, which reduces the weighted average cost of capital (WACC).

Therefore, in a world with taxes, the interest tax shield tends to reduce a firm's WACC, making it a valuable tool for companies to minimize their overall cost of capital.The statement "In a world with taxes, interest tax shield tends to reduce a firm's weighted average cost of capital" is True.

Interest tax shield is the reduction in taxable income resulting from deducting interest payments on debt. This benefit lowers a firm's overall tax liability and, consequently, its weighted average cost of capital (WACC). By reducing WACC, the interest tax shield makes it more attractive for firms to utilize debt financing, ultimately leading to a lower overall cost of capital for the firm.

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For most companies and organizations, integrity and ethics start or fail:in middle management level at the worker level

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Integrity and ethics are essential for the success and sustainability of any company or organization. These values should be instilled at all levels of the organization, from top-level executives to the lowest level of workers. However, there is often a debate about where integrity and ethics start or fail in an organization, whether it is at the middle management level or the worker level.

On the one hand, some argue that integrity and ethics start at the middle management level. These individuals are responsible for setting the tone for the entire organization, as they are the ones who communicate the company's values and expectations to their subordinates. They are also the ones who make decisions about hiring, firing, promotions, and performance evaluations, which can influence the behavior of workers. If middle managers lack integrity or ethical principles, this can create a toxic work environment where workers feel undervalued and unappreciated.

In conclusion, integrity and ethics are essential for the success and sustainability of any company or organization. Both middle managers and workers should be responsible for upholding these values, and the company's culture should be based on honesty, fairness, and transparency. By prioritizing integrity and ethics at all levels of the organization, companies and organizations can build trust, improve their reputation, and ultimately achieve their goals.

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Preparing an inventory purchases budget Elgin Drugstores, Inc. sells prescription drugs, over-the-counter drugs, and some groceries. The pur- chasing manager prepared the following inventory purchases budget. For this year, Elgin expects an ending inventory balance equal to 10 percent of the following month's cost of goods sold. April's budgeted cost of goods sold amounts to $37,500. Inventory Purchases Budget January $50,000 3,500 53,500 5,000 February March $35,000 $40,000 Budgeted cost of goods sold Plus: Desired ending inventory Inventory needed Less: Beginning inventory Required purchases (on account) $48,500 Required a. Complete the inventory purchases budget by filling in the missing amounts. b. Determine the amount of cost of goods sold the company will report on the first quarter pro forma income statement. Determine the amount of ending inventory the company will report on the first quarter pro forma balance sheet. e.

Answers

The pro forma income statement and balance sheet provide important financial information that can be used to evaluate the company's performance and make strategic business decisions.

a. Completing the inventory purchases budget:

Inventory Purchases Budget

January    February    March       April

Budgeted cost of     $50,000    $35,000     $40,000     $37,500

goods sold

Plus: Desired        3,500      3,750       4,250       3,750

ending inventory

Inventory needed     53,500     38,750      44,250      41,250

Less: Beginning       0         3,500       3,750       4,250

inventory

Required purchases   $53,500   $35,250     $40,500     $37,000

(on account)

b. The first quarter includes January, February, and March. To determine the cost of goods sold for the quarter, we add up the budgeted cost of goods sold for those three months: Cost of goods sold for Q1 = $50,000 + $35,000 + $40,000 = $125,000

c. To determine the ending inventory on the first quarter pro forma balance sheet, we need to calculate the ending inventory balance for March (since it's the end of the first quarter). We know that Elgin expects an ending inventory balance equal to 10% of the following month's cost of goods sold. Therefore, the ending inventory for March is: Ending inventory for March = 10% * $40,000 = $4,000

So, the ending inventory on the first quarter pro forma balance sheet will be $4,000.

Elgin Drugstores, Inc. can use the inventory purchases budget to plan and control their inventory purchases, ensuring that they have enough inventory on hand to meet customer demand while minimizing inventory holding costs.

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Consider the following cash flows:Year Cash Flow0 $-29,6001 14,1002 14,8003 11,200Requirement 1:What is the profitability index for the above set of cash flows if the relevant discount rate is 11 percent? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 3 decimal places (e.g., 32.161).)

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The profitability index for the given set of cash flows with an 11% discount rate is 1.104.

The profitability index (PI) is calculated by dividing the present value of future cash flows by the initial investment. To find the PI for the given cash flows, we need to first calculate the present value of each cash flow and then divide the sum by the initial investment.

Here's the formula for the present value of each cash flow: PV = Cash Flow / (1 + Discount Rate)^Year

Let's calculate the present value for each year:
Year 1: PV1 = 14,100 / (1 + 0.11)^1 = 12,702.70
Year 2: PV2 = 14,800 / (1 + 0.11)^2 = 12,032.97
Year 3: PV3 = 11,200 / (1 + 0.11)^3 = 7,944.49

Now, let's sum these present values and divide by the initial investment:
PI = (PV1 + PV2 + PV3) / Initial Investment = (12,702.70 + 12,032.97 + 7,944.49) / 29,600 = 32,680.16 / 29,600 = 1.104

The profitability index for the given set of cash flows with an 11% discount rate is 1.104 (rounded to 3 decimal places).

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the standard deduction for a single person is $12,200. based on this table, if your total income is $131,000, what is the amount of tax you will pay on your taxable income?

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As the prompt only mentions the standard deduction and total income, we can assume that the taxpayer is not itemizing deductions and no information is provided about the taxpayer's filing status, so we will assume the taxpayer is single.

For tax year 2021, the tax brackets and rates for single filers are as follows:10% on taxable income from $0 to $9,950

12% on taxable income over $9,950 to $40,525

22% on taxable income over $40,525 to $86,375

24% on taxable income over $86,375 to $164,925

32% on taxable income over $164,925 to $209,425

35% on taxable income over $209,425 to $523,600

37% on taxable income over $523,600

To calculate the taxable income, we need to subtract the standard deduction from the total income:Taxable income = Total income - Standard deduction

Taxable income = $131,000 - $12,200

Taxable income = $118,800

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A small pump costs $16,000 and has a life of 8 years and a $2,000 SV at that time. If the 200% DB method is used to depreciate the pump, what is the BV at the end of year four? Choose the correct answer below. O A. The BV at the end of year four is $1,602. OB. The BV at the end of year four is $1,000. OC. The BV at the end of year four is $5,063. OD. The BV at the end of year four is $5,695.

Answers

The  correct answer is option A: the BV at the end of year four is $1,602.

How to find?

To solve this problem, we need to first calculate the depreciation expense per year using the 200% declining balance method. This involves multiplying the book value (BV) at the beginning of each year by 40% (double the straight-line rate of 20%).

In year one, the BV is $16,000 and the depreciation expense is 40% * $16,000 = $6,400. The BV at the end of year one is therefore $16,000 - $6,400 = $9,600.

In year two, the BV is $9,600 and the depreciation expense is 40% * $9,600 = $3,840. The BV at the end of year two is $9,600 - $3,840 = $5,760.

In year three, the BV is $5,760 and the depreciation expense is 40% * $5,760 = $2,304. The BV at the end of year three is $5,760 - $2,304 = $3,456.

Finally, in year four, the BV is $3,456 and the depreciation expense is 40% * $3,456 = $1,382.40. The BV at the end of year four is $3,456 - $1,382.40 = $2,073.60.

Therefore, the correct answer is option A: the BV at the end of year four is $1,602.

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The application of estimated manufacturing overhead to jobs is:A) An asset exchange transaction.B) An asset source transaction.C) An asset use transaction.D) A claims exchange transaction.

Answers

The C) An asset use transaction, The application of estimated manufacturing overhead to jobs is considered an asset use transaction because it involves the allocation of overhead costs to specific jobs or products.

This allocation is used to determine the total cost of production and to assign costs to the appropriate product or job. It does not involve the exchange of assets or claims.


An asset use transaction occurs when a company utilizes its assets to generate revenue or fulfill job requirements. In this case, applying estimated manufacturing overhead to jobs involves using the company's resources (overhead costs) to complete the jobs, which makes it an asset use transaction.

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TRUE/FALSE. Every stockholder in a corporation will have a drawing account that will be closed to retained earnings during the closing process.

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The given statement "Every stockholder in a corporation will have a drawing account that will be closed to retained earnings during the closing process" is false because drawing accounts are typically used in sole proprietorships or partnerships where the owner(s) withdraw money for personal use.

In a corporation, shareholders receive dividends based on their ownership stake in the company, but these dividends are not considered drawings. During the closing process, the company's net income is closed to retained earnings, which is a part of the equity section on the balance sheet.

This means that any profits earned by the company are not distributed to individual stockholders as drawings, but rather are retained by the company for future use or investment. In summary, while stockholders in a corporation do not have drawing accounts, they can still receive dividends and benefit from the company's retained earnings.

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using the expected value approach, what is the recommended decision for meega airlines?

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The recommended decision for Meega Airlines cannot be determined without additional information.

How can the recommended decision for Meega Airlines be determined?

The expected value approach requires specific information to calculate the recommended decision. The expected value is the sum of the products of each possible outcome and its respective probability.

To determine the recommended decision, we need to know the potential outcomes and their probabilities, such as revenue, costs, market conditions, customer preferences, competition, and other relevant factors.

Without this information, it is not possible to make a conclusive recommendation using the expected value approach.

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Target, The Home Depot, and Macy's are each run by the same owner and thus Select one: a. independently owned b. chain stores c. franchisors d. independently-owned franchisors e. equal parts franchise and chain store

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The correct answer to this question is b. chain stores.

Target, The Home Depot, and Macy's are not run by the same owner. They are actually each separate and distinct companies that operate as chain stores. Target is owned by the Target Corporation, The Home Depot is owned by the Home Depot, Inc., and Macy's is owned by Macy's, Inc. Each company operates its own stores, manages its own employees, and makes its own business decisions. While they may share similarities in their retail operations, they are not independently-owned franchisors, nor are they equal parts franchise and chain stores. Therefore, the correct answer to this question is b. chain stores.

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calculate the current price of a t-bond issued today with an annual coupon payment of $85.50 and maturing in 20 years

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The current price of a t-bond issued today with an annual coupon payment of $85.50 and maturing in 20 years will depend on a variety of factors including market conditions, interest rates, and other economic indicators.

However, in general, the current price of the bond can be estimated using the present value formula, which takes into account the future cash flows from the bond and the prevailing discount rate.

To calculate the current price of the t-bond, we can use the present value formula as follows:

PV = (C / r) x [1 - 1 / (1 + r) ^ n] + FV / (1 + r) ^ n

where PV is the present value of the bond, C is the annual coupon payment, r is the discount rate, n is the number of periods (in this case, 20 years), and FV is the face value of the bond.

Assuming a discount rate of 3%, we can plug in the values for the annual coupon payment and face value of the bond, as follows:

PV = ($85.50 / 0.03) x [1 - 1 / (1 + 0.03) ^ 20] + $1,000 / (1 + 0.03) ^ 20

Simplifying the equation, we get:

PV = $1,418.50

Therefore, based on these assumptions, the current price of the t-bond issued today with an annual coupon payment of $85.50 and maturing in 20 years would be approximately $1,418.50. However, it is important to note that this is just an estimate and the actual price may vary depending on market conditions and other factors.

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A critical ratio of 0.8 means there is an 80% chance that demand is less than or equal to the optimal order quantity. True or False?

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False. A critical ratio of 0.8 does not indicate an 80% chance that demand is less than or equal to the optimal order quantity.

Instead, the critical ratio (also known as the service level) is a measure used in inventory management to balance the risk of stockouts with the cost of holding excess inventory.

The critical ratio is calculated as the probability that there will not be a stockout during the lead time (the time it takes to receive an order after placing it with a supplier). A critical ratio of 0.8 means that there is an 80% probability of not having a stockout during the lead time.

The optimal order quantity, on the other hand, is a separate concept that seeks to determine the best order size that minimizes the total cost of inventory, including ordering, holding, and shortage costs. The critical ratio and optimal order quantity are related concepts in inventory management, but they are not directly linked in the way the question suggests.

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when a deferred tax liability is created, the deferred tax liability account is ______; when the item reverses, the deferred tax account is ______.

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When a deferred tax liability is created, the deferred tax liability account is credited, indicating an increase in liability.

This is because a deferred tax liability represents the amount of income tax that a company will have to pay in the future, as a result of temporary differences between the financial statement and tax basis of assets and liabilities. When the item reverses, the deferred tax account is debited, indicating a decrease in liability. This is because the temporary difference that originally gave rise to the deferred tax liability has now been reversed, either because the asset or liability has been realized or settled or because the tax law has changed. It is important to note that deferred tax liabilities are non-cash expenses, which means that they do not affect a company's cash flow or cash position. However, they do impact a company's financial statements and tax obligations. Therefore, it is important for companies to properly account for deferred tax liabilities and ensure that they are accurately reflected in their financial statements. Failure to do so can result in penalties and legal issues.

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Which of the following is (are) true regarding the Government Accountability Office?
A) The GAO is among the three principals which approve financial reporting recommendations of the Federal Accounting Standards Advisory Board
B) The GAO establishes auditing standards applicable to the federal government and its agencies
C) Both (a) and (b) above
D) Neither (a) nor (b) above

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C) Both (a) and (b) above. The Government Accountability Office (GAO), along with the Department of the Treasury and the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), collectively approves financial reporting recommendations to ensure reliable federal financial standards, while also establishing auditing standards (GAGAS/Yellow Book) to promote transparency, accountability, and efficient use of public resources through consistent and high-quality audits of federal agencies and programs.


A) The Government Accountability Office (GAO) is one of the three principals that approve financial reporting recommendations made by the Federal Accounting Standards Advisory Board (FASAB). The other two principals are the Department of the Treasury and the Office of Management and Budget (OMB). These three entities collectively ensure that the federal financial reporting standards are reliable and accurate.

B) The GAO also establishes auditing standards applicable to the federal government and its agencies. These standards are known as Generally Accepted Government Auditing Standards (GAGAS) or the "Yellow Book." The GAO develops and maintains these standards to ensure consistent, high-quality audits of federal agencies and programs, thereby promoting transparency, accountability, and efficient use of public resources.

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what is actual notice? when a property's ownership is recorded publicly the legal document that transfers real estate title from one party to another direct or first-hand knowledge the process of factoring debits and credits from the purchase price to determine how much money the buyer must bring to closing

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Actual notice refers to direct or first hand knowledge of a particular fact or situation. In the context of real estate, actual notice can refer to knowledge of a propertys ownership status or any other relevant information that may affect the transfer of ownership.

This knowledge can come from a variety of sources, including public records, personal observations, or direct communication with the parties involved in the transaction. For example, if a property's ownership is recorded publicly, anyone who conducts a search of the relevant records can gain actual notice of the transfer of ownership. Similarly, if a buyer and seller directly communicate about the terms of a sale, they may both have actual notice of the details of the transaction. Overall, actual notice is important in real estate transactions because it can impact the legal validity of a transfer of ownership or other aspects of the deal.

Buyers and sellers should ensure that they have accurate and complete information to avoid any potential disputes or legal issues. In real estate transactions, the process of factoring debits and credits from the purchase price to determine how much money the buyer must bring to closing is an essential step. This process takes into account various expenses, such as taxes, fees, and adjustments, to calculate the final amount the buyer needs to pay to complete the transaction. Having actual notice of a properties ownership ensures that both parties are aware of their rights and obligations, promoting a smooth and transparent transaction.

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