Obesity is the most common nutritional concern in adolescence because of the overeating.
What is the most common nutritional concern during adolescence?The nutritional concern during adolescence include problems of overeating and consistently making poor food choices, resulting in obesity. Many adolescents develop problems with unhealthy and restrictive dieting without meeting the minimum nutritional requirements that are necessary for healthy growth and development of an adolescence.
So we can conclude that Obesity is the most common nutritional concern in adolescence because of the overeating.
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To deconstruct a medical term always start with the:
The suffix is added to deconstruct the medical term.
Medical professionals use medical terminologies to study components, medical techniques, processes, diseases, medicines, and parts of the body. These medical terminologies are constructed by combining prefixes, root words, and suffixes.
The prefix is the starting of the term, which indicates the color, location, direction, etc.,The root word is the subject, which indicates the part of the body.The suffix is the end of the term, which indicates the disease, disorders, and condition.For example Bradycardia,
Prefix- Brady ( abnormally slow)
root word- cardi ( heart)
suffix- ia (abnormal state)
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Some older adults are unable to meet nutrient needs because of __________________ and may need supplements of ________________and ______________
Some older adults are unable to meet nutrient needs because of a decrease in appetite and may need supplements of vitamins and calcium.
Nutrition is important to live a healthy life. Eating healthy nutritious food gives proper growth and development to the body and brain. With aging the proper functioning of the body declines due to deficiency of nutrients. This decrease in nutrition in the old adult is due to less appetite. This results in diseases like weaker bones, in females osteoporosis, osteoarthritis, etc. To meet all their nutrition old adults require intake of supplements having vitamin D, vitamin B12, and calcium for healthy bones.
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The nurse is caring for a 5-year-old patient admitted with suspected dehydration. What is the daily oral fluid maintenance requirement in milliliters for the patient weighing 45 lb
The daily oral fluid maintenance requirement in milliliters for a patient weighing 45 lb is 1510mL.
What is oral fluid maintenance?Maintenance fluid is a water and electrolyte solution which aims to replace the excessive loss of water and electrolytes through skin and through urinary system.This therapy was given by Holliday and Segar.Maintenance fluids consist of water, glucose, potassium and sodium. This is especially given to those children who are NPO (Nothing by mouth).The rate at which maintenance fluid is given depends upon the patient’s size and weight.For children weighing >20kg, the daily maintenance fluid required is given by 1500 mL + 20 mL/kg for every kg over 20 (cannot exceed 2400 mL/day)For a child weighing 45 lb (20.5 kg), the daily fluid requirement is 1500+ (0.5* 20) = 1510 mL.Learn more about Oral rehydration therapy here:
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_____________________ deaths are prevented each year by the newly improved pneumococcal conjugate vaccine used with infants.
More than 1,000 deaths are prevented each year by the newly improved pneumococcal conjugate vaccine used with infants.
Pneumococcal disease alludes to any disease brought about by pneumococcal bacteria. These microorganisms can cause many kinds of diseases, including pneumonia, which is a contamination of the lungs. Pneumococcal microbes are one of the most widely recognized reasons for pneumonia.
Pneumococcal conjugate immunization is a pneumococcal immunization and forms antibodies used to safeguard infants, small kids, and grown-ups against sickness brought about by the bacterium Streptococcus pneumonia.
There are three pneumococcal form immunizations PCV13, PCV15, and PCV20. The various immunizations are suggested for various individuals in light of their age and clinical status. In general, the immunization is 60% to 70% successful in forestalling obtrusive illness brought about by serotypes in the antibody.
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What is not the priority of an emt at the scene of a hazardous materials incident?
Emergency medical technicians (EMTs) have various important roles excluding the establishment the perimeter control.
Protecting people and property while minimising any adverse effects on the environment are the responsibilities of trained awareness level responders who are "first on the scene" during the occurrence of hazardous material. Emergency medical service (EMS) protocols are the accepted operating procedures that paramedics and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) must adhere to when assessing, treating, transporting, and delivering patients to definitive care.
There are certain role of responders that needed to be taken care of during such incidents.
Responders should avoid driving or walking through any spilled or released substances, including smoke, fumes, and puddlesPrevent unneeded equipment infectionAvoid being seen when you approach a sceneAvoid interacting with people leaving hazardous locationsRescue attempts should not be made unless you are trained and have the necessary PPEReport to the command post any suspicious people, shipments, or containersTo know more about EMT
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When a person has a stroke, blood leaks into the brain tissue. Which type of neuroglia cells would make structural repairs to the damage?.
Astrocytes are the neuroglia cells that tend to the structural repair to the damage.
The cells that play a major role to support the neurons are the neuroglia. These cells are also termed glial cells. The primary functions of neuroglia involve providing oxygen and nutrients to the neurons, insulating one neuron from the next, to support them and remove pathogens.
Astrocytes are a type of glial cells that form the blood-brain barrier and maintain the chemical environment of the central nervous stem (CNS). Any form of CNS insult makes the astrocytes reactive and generates a morphological change as a part of the response. A type of such response is forming the glial scar, which obstructs the regeneration of axons.
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The aim of community based participatory research is to achieve individual change that results in improved community health outcomes and health equity.
The aim of CBPR is to increase knowledge and understanding of a given phenomenon and to integrate the knowledge gained with interventions for policy or social change benefiting the community members.
What is Community based participatory research ?Community-Based Participatory Research (CBPR) is an approach in which researchers and community stakeholders form equitable partnerships to tackle issues related to community health improvement and knowledge production.
CBPR can be used to increase access to care by building relationships with community partners that can determine geographical areas of need.establish community priorities for health concerns and ultimately create a more efficient and streamlined healthcare delivery system.Learn more about Community based participatory research here:
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Which of these is generally not a good practice with respect to oral communications (that is, talking) in organizations like healthcare facilities
Use of full names in public areas or on intercom/paging systems,
because there is no security issue with identifying persons in public areas and using full names helps avoid misidentification
What is Oral communications ?Oral communication implies communication through mouth.
It's a verbal form of communication where you communicate your thoughts, present ideas and share information. Examples of oral communication are conversations with friends, family or colleagues, presentations and speeches.The speech of this communication must be sensible and applicable to the subject matter.Learn more about Oral communication here:
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To administer drugs safely and effectively to all patients, it is important for medical assistants to
To administer drugs safely and effectively to all patients, it is important for medical assistants to know the techniques needed to administer drugs, know how to perform dosage calculations and know the routes of medication administration.
What about medical assistants?Medical assistants frequently record patients' vital signs and obtain medical histories. In hospitals, clinics, and other healthcare settings, medical assistants carry both clinical and administrative duties. Their responsibilities change according on the practice's location, specialty, and size.Medical assistants collaborate with doctors, typically in outpatient or ambulatory care settings like clinics and medical offices.The healthcare sector depends heavily on medical assistants, who offer services to patients and medical professionals alike. They can help with routine medical procedures including taking vital signs, giving drugs as prescribed by a doctor, or compiling a patient's medical history. They also assist with the administrative side of running medical clinics by handling paperwork, billing insurance, and arranging appointments.
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What did a famous Harvard University public health study identify as a factor that doubles the risk of heart disease
Harvard University public health study identify pessimism as a factor that doubles the risk of heart disease .
A pessimistic perspective on life may be harmful to heart health.
Over the course of ten years, the study followed 3,000 men and women between the ages of 52 and 76. Participants were polled prior to the study to gauge how well their outlooks matched up with optimistic and pessimistic personality qualities.
According to the study, males who were assessed to be the least pessimistic were four times as likely to acquire heart disease. The study's most pessimistic participants also had a greater than twofold increased risk of dying from coronary heart disease.
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A woman in scrubs enters a mother's room while the nurse is completing an assessment. The woman states the doctor is in the nursery and has requested the infant be brought back for an examination. What will the nurse do
The nurse will ask the woman to see her postnatal hospital identification badge.
If the birth took place in a facility, the mother and child should be postnatal examined before being released. 6 to 8 weeks after the birth of your child, you should have your postnatal check to ensure that you feel well and are healing appropriately.
Soon after birth, blood pressure should be checked. A detailed and holistic assessment of the mother and her new infant is possible only through postnatal care. It strives to make sure both mother and child are healthy and that the mother has the resources she needs to care for her newborn child, including assistance and knowledge.
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. consider two examples. sample a has data more tightly clustered about the mean compared to sample b. we can say that
Since sample a has data more tightly clustered about the mean compared to sample b, we can say that the variance for sample a is lower than that for sample b.
What is variance:
Variability gets used to measure the central tendency's closeness to the values. A measure of central tendency that can get used is mean. Mean refers to the average for some given values and gets determined by dividing the sum of those values by the number of values. The variance refers to the average squared difference of each value from the mean.
When the variance is lower, the data is less spread out. Thus, data being more tightly clustered about the mean reflects lower variance. Since sample a has data more tightly clustered about the mean compared to sample b, it can be concluded that the variance for sample a is lower than that for sample b.
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Emphysema, chronic bronchitis, and related lung diseases are all grouped under the broad term of:
Emphysema, chronic bronchitis and related lung diseases are all grouped under Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD).
What is COPD?COPD refers to a group of diseases that block the airflow and cause breathing-related problems. It is a term for a range of lung diseases like emphysema and chronic bronchitis.These diseases progress gradually, making it harder to breathe over time.Main cause of COPD is smoking.Lung diseases cannot be reversed but can be managed by lifestyle changes.Chronic bronchitis irritates your bronchial tubes, which carry air to and from your lungs.Emphysema is the breakdown of the walls of the tiny air sacs (alveoli) at the end of the bronchial tubes, in the bottom of your lung.Learn more about COPD here:
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the nurse is caring for a newborn who is 18 inches long weighs 4 pounds 14 ounces has a head circumference 13 inches and a chest circumference 10 inches
Hypoglycemia
Giving the infant a rapid-acting source of glucose, such as a mixture of glucose/water or formula as an early feeding if the infant is able to take by mouth, is the urgent treatment for hypoglycemia.
What is Hypoglycemia ?When the blood sugar (glucose) level is too low, hypoglycemia occurs. The primary fuel for the body and the brain is glucose. Low blood sugar in a newborn infant can occur for a variety of causes. It may result in issues including trembling, a blue tint to the skin, as well as difficulties breathing and eating.
Inadequate intake of food. The mother's and the baby's blood types are incompatible. Birth abnormalities, endocrine problems, and metabolic conditions are already present. inadequate oxygen intake during birth (birth asphyxia)Learn more about Hypoglycemia here:
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The nursing process is a systematic, problem-solving approach that provides the framework for nursing practice in the United States and Canada. Put the five steps of the nursing process in order. (Select all that apply)
Assessment- Diagnosis-Planning-Implementation-Evaluation is the correct nursing process.
What is nursing process?Assessment: The assessment phase is the first step in the nursing process. The nurse gathers and arranges patient-related data at this stage. Diagnosis: One of the most crucial stages in the nursing process is this one. When making a diagnosis, which can be difficult at times, it must take into account all of the patient's external circumstances (environmental, socioeconomic, physiological, etc.).planning: The third step in the nursing process is planning. It gives nursing interventions guidance.Implementation: Nursing interventions are the steps a nurse takes to carry out their patient care plan, such as any treatments, procedures, or learning opportunities meant to increase the patient's comfort and health.Evaluation: The evaluation phase is the last step in the nursing process. It occurs after the interventions to determine whether the objectives were achieved. The nurse will decide how to assess the efficacy of the goals and interventions during the evaluation phase.Disclaimer: The question given in the portal is incomplete. Here, The complete question.
Question: The nursing process is a systematic, problem-solving approach that provides the framework for nursing practice in the United States and Canada. Put the five steps of the nursing process in order. (Select all that apply.)
a. Diagnosis
b. Implementation
c. Planning
d. Assessment
e. Evaluation
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The nurse is caring for a client in labor at 37 weeks gestation and notes a baseline fetal heart rate of 180 beats per minute. Which interventions should the nurse perform
Provide the mother with oxygen
Fetal tachycardia, an abnormal foetal heart rate that can be found on the foetal monitor, is suggested by the heart rate in the description. Tachycardia could result from problems affecting the baby's heart or from conditions affecting the mother, such as fever or dehydration. To boost hydration and oxygenation for the mother and baby, the nurse should increase the IV pace and give the mother oxygen.
What is Fetal tachycardia ?Having a heartbeat that is faster than 160–180 beats per minute is known as foetal tachycardia (bpm).
This quick pace may be intermittent or continuous, with a regular or irregular rhythm. Fewer than 1% of all pregnancies experience a prolonged foetal tachyarrhythmia.Learn more about Fetal tachycardia here:
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Flexibility exercises will increase flexibility but will not necessarily improve cardiovascular fitness is an example of the principle of specificity. Flexibility exercises will increase flexibility but will not necessarily improve cardiovascular fitness is an example of the principle of specificity. True False
False, the given statement is not an example of the Principle of specificity.
The Athlete uses the principle of specificity to increase their performance, this principle states, that the training should increase the skills, actions, and performance to excel in any physical activity. The exercise you are doing will gain specifically the part of the body for which the exercise is done. For example, if you are running or jogging to increase stamina this will in turn also increase your cardiovascular functioning.
Doing Flexibility exercise makes the body flexible also lowers the blood pressure and reduces the stiffness of the arteries for better blood flow to the heart and improves cardiovascular fitness.
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which client condition is likely to improve significantly with the use of hearing aids destruction of the auditory nerve
The client's hearing condition is likely to improve significantly with the use of hearing aids after the auditory nerve is destroyed.
What hearing condition?Hearing loss is a condition that reduces the human being's ability to hear sounds, also influencing the development of language and making it difficult to establish communication.
With this information, we can conclude that Hearing acuity is linked to perception and hearing ability. People who hear well, without noise, without problems, have good acuity.
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Symptoms of ________ deficiency include glossitis, dermatitis, cheilosis, eye disorders, sun sensitivity, and confusion.
Answer:
riboflavin
Explanation:
Michael was recently diagnosed with a tumor of the pituitary gland and underwent surgery to remove the entire mass. After surgery the nurse noted that michael was producing an extremely large volume of urine. What might be causing michael to do this?.
The removal of Michael's tumour may have rendered him incapable of producing antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
The pituitary gland is known as the "master gland" because the hormones it generates regulate so many distinct bodily processes. It detects the body's demands and sends messages to various organs and glands to control their activity and maintain a suitable environment. It secretes hormones into the bloodstream that act as messengers to transfer information from the pituitary gland to distant cells, so controlling their activity. For instance, the pituitary gland generates prolactin, which stimulates milk production in the breasts.
The pituitary gland also helps store and secrete two important hormones - Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin. Anti-diuretic hormone aids in blood pressure regulation by working on the kidneys and blood arteries. Its most significant function is to conserve fluid volume by decreasing the amount of water lost through urine.
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for a patient with a new onset of Meniere disease, which meal choice indicates understanding of dietary modifications provides by the nurse to prevent attacks
Low-salt (sodium) diet for Meniere's disease
Vertigo and hearing loss are two symptoms of the inner ear ailment
Meniere's disease. Meniere's illness typically only affects one ear.
Meniere's illness can strike at any age, but it typically manifests between the ages of 20 and 40. Although it's regarded as a chronic ailment, there are a number of therapies that can assist manage the symptoms and lessen the long-term effects on your life.
The initial line of treatment frequently entails dietary changes, such as limiting salt, caffeine, alcohol intake, and the use of numerous medicines.
Just draw attention to the fact that daily glucose intake is not mentioned in the current debate over which diet should be recommended for MD patients.
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factors affecting diffusion?
Answer:
Factors affecting the rate of diffusion are as follows: Concentration gradient Permeability of the membrane Temperature Pressure
Concentration gradient.
Permeability of the membrane.
Temperature.
Pressure.
Shingles is a medical condition that usually occurs years after chickenpox, even though no illness is present in the intervening period of time. This occurs because human herpes virus-3 (HHV-3) is capable of __________.
Shingles is a medical condition that usually occurs years after chickenpox, even though no illness is present in the intervening period of time. This occurs because human herpes virus-3 (HHV-3) is capable of latent infection.
Herpesviruses are a class of viruses that may infect both humans and animals, and the human herpesvirus, often known as HHV, is a member of this virus family. There are around 130 different species of herpes virus, but only eight of these are known to cause infections in people. These are referred to collectively as the human herpesvirus, abbreviated as HHV. DNA viruses make up the herpes virus family. This denotes that DNA, and not RNA, serves as the herpesviruses' primary genetic material.
Many common diseases, such as chickenpox, mononucleosis, shingles, cold sores, and genital herpes, are caused by members of the herpes virus family that are found in humans. Infections brought on by the human herpes virus typically remain dormant, which means that the virus continues to exist in the host even after the primary infection has been cured and has the potential to become active again at a later time.
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A condition of the lymphatic system evidenced by inflammation of the lymphatic vessels with accompanying red streaks visible in the skin is called ____.
Lymphangitis is a disorder of the lymphatic system characterized by inflammation of the lymphatic vessels and associated red streaks visible on the skin.
One of the important parts of the human body that make up the immune system is the lymphatic system. It is made up of a network of ducts, cells, glands, and organs. The body has nodes, which are another name for glands. The body's ability to fight infections depends heavily on your lymphatic system. The lymph vessels transfer lymph fluid and lymphocytes, or white blood cells, to an infection site in order to combat the disease. The inflammation of lymphatic vessels is called lymphangitis.
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Your patient was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during a bar fight. A crackling or crunching
The sensation that is felt when air escapes from its normal passageways and is trapped under the skin is called subcutaneous emphysema.
Subcutaneous emphysemaWhen air gets trapped under the skin, it's called subcutaneous emphysema. "Subcutaneous" refers to the area beneath the skin, whereas "emphysema" simply means "air." Emphysema, a lung condition that is frequently brought on by smoking, comes in two varieties. This variety is distinct from the other. Surgery, medical treatments, accidents, traumas, or infections can all lead to subcutaneous emphysema. Subcutaneous emphysema can cause complications, but they are actually relatively uncommon and the prognosis is good. These complications, however, can be fatal. According to one study, subcutaneous emphysema patients typically spent 16 days in the hospital, regardless of their severity level.
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All of the following are underwriting considerations for replacing health insurance coverage, EXCEPT:
D. It is the applicant's responsibility to assure the replacing coverage is for the insured's best interest.
What is health insurance coverage?Health insurance coverage is a type of insurance that covers the medical expenses of an insured person, such as surgical treatments, illness treatment, etc.
Underwriting considerationsThe underwriting considerations for replacing health insurance coverage include the following;
it is performed when it is necessary to replace health insurance policies.the replacing coverage may cost more and have fewer benefits than the existing coverage.Sometimes the replacing policy may not be issued if it provides the similar benefits as already existing policy.Thus, the option that is not underwriting considerations for replacing health insurance coverage is "D".
"It is the applicant's responsibility to assure the replacing coverage is for the insured's best interest."
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Dr order: Infuse 2750 mL of 0.45% Normal Saline at 150 mL/hr
Drop Factor: 15 gtt/mL
How many gtt/min will you regulate the IV?
The nurse asks a patient to smile, blow out his cheeks, raise his eyebrows, and close his eyes tightly. The nurse is assessing which cranial nerve
The nurse is assessing the Seventh cranial nerve for the facial expressions and movement such as smiling, raising eyebrows, blowing out cheeks and closing eyes tightly.
The Seventh cranial nerve is responsible for the sensory and motor functions in which it transmits the signal from the pons of our brain stem to the different facial muscles for the respective movement and expressions as follows.
Frontalis muscle (raising eyebrows)Orbicularis oculi and zygomaticus major (Smiling)Buccinator (Blow out cheeks)The orbicularis oculi (closing eyes tightly)Learn more about the cranial nerve on https://brainly.com/question/13982064
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It is recommended to close off areas used by ill persons and wait before beginning to clean and disinfect to minimize potential for exposure to respiratory droplets. If possible, you should wait up to ______ before beginning to clean and disinfect.
It is recommended to close off areas used by ill persons and wait before beginning to clean and disinfect to minimize potential for exposure to respiratory droplets. If possible, you should wait up to 24 hours before beginning to clean and disinfect.
What is disinfection?Disinfection is defined as the reduction of the presence of disease causing microorganisms such as bacteria, fungi, and viruses to a less virulent amount.
When a patient that is affected by communicable disease is discharged, the area where the patient stayed must be disinfected.
It is recommended by the center for disease control (CDC) that a waiting period of up to 24 hours should be done to minimize potential exposure to respiratory droplets.
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A nurse is performing an otoscopic examination on a client. Which finding would the nurse document as abnormal
the abnormalities the nurse can document during the otoscopic examination are immobility of the tympanic membrane and middle ear effusion.
What is otoscopy?Otoscopy can be defined as a clinical procedure used in the examination of the structures of the ear, particularly the external auditory canal, tympanic membrane, and even the middle ear.
Clinicians carryout otoscopy during routine wellness physical exams and the evaluation of specific ear complaints
During the otoscopic examination, the clinician utilizes an otoscope, also to see through or to visualize the ear anatomy.
The abnormalities that can be documented include;
Immobility of the tympanic membrane moves in response to pressure. The detection of middle ear effusionThus, the abnormalities the nurse can document during the otoscopic examination are immobility of the tympanic membrane and middle ear effusion.
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