Use a high SPF sunblock which decreases the risk of photosensitive reactions is the nursing instructions related to photosensitivity important for the client receiving sulfonamide.
Sulfonamide is a functional group that serves as the foundation for various medication classes known as sulphonamides, sulfa medicines, or sulpha pharmaceuticals. The first antibacterial sulfonamides are sulfonamide-containing synthetic antimicrobial agents.
Sulfanilamide, a streptococcal infection treatment, has been proved to have remarkable curative results and had been used safely in tablet and powder form for some time. Sulfonamides are synthetic bacteriostatic antibiotics with a broad spectrum of activity against most gram-positive and many gram-negative bacteria. Many strains of a single species, however, may be resistant. Sulfonamides include sulfadiazine, sulfamethizole (Thiosulfil Forte), sulfamethoxazole (Gantanol), sulfasalazine (Azulfidine), sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin), and numerous high-strength combinations of three sulfonamides.
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____is characterized by convulsions and sometimes coma. treatment for this condition includes the delivery of the fetus.
The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative craniotomy with bone flap removal. The nurse notes clear wound drainage saturating the dressing over the incision. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate at this time
Lisa is 65 and eligible for medicare how does she sign up
Answer:
Visiting your local Social Security office.
Calling Social Security at 800-772-1213.
Mailing a signed and dated letter to Social Security that includes your name, Social Security number, and the date you would like to be enrolled in Medicare.
Or, by applying online at www.ssa.gov.
What is the correct volume of air to deliver during BVM
ventilations?
Select the correct answer to this question.
100 mL
700 mL
1,600 mL
The correct volume of air to deliver during BVM ventilations is = 1,600 mL. That is option C.
What is BVM ventilations?BVM ventilations also called Bag-valve-mask (BVM) ventilation is defined as the emergency process that helps in the oxygenation and ventilation of a patient until another means for breathing is created for the patient.
According to the American Heart Association, a normal adult BVM holds about 1.5 L of air – almost three times the recommended 600 mL tidal volume for an adult patient.
Therefore, the correct volume of air to deliver during BVM ventilations is = 1,600 mL.
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A nurse on a psychiatric unit is planning care for an unconscious teenage client who ingested a non-corrosive substance that has no recommended antidote. Which of the following methods for gastric emptying is appropriate
The most appropriate gastric emptying in someone who ingested a non-corrosive substance that has no recommended antidote is activated charcoal.
What is Activated charcoal?This is the type of charcoal formed when it is heated in the presence of a gas thereby creating pores or spaces in its structure.
Since the substance is non corrosive and has no antidote then it is best to use activated charcoal as it helps to filter the contaminants or toxic substance thereby making it the most appropriate choice.
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The remaining part of the question is:
The nurse should recommend performing gastric lavage with which substance?
hich of the following statements is true regarding the International Committee of Medical Journal Editors (ICMJE) guidelines
Individuals who do not meet the criteria for authorship but who have made a noteworthy contribution are normally listed in the acknowledgments section is regarded as the true statement regarding the International Committee of Medical Journal Editors (ICMJE) guidelines.
What are Guidelines?This is referred to a general rule or principle about how certain things are to be done in a given profession or workplace. There are different criteria for publishing based on International Committee of Medical Journal Editors (ICMJE) guidelines.
This criteria include listing those who made various degree of contributions to the work in the acknowledgment section which helps promote inclusiveness and hardwork thereby making it the most appropriate choice in this scenario.
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Which is an acceptable method of selecting an appropriately sized oropharyngeal airway?.
By measuring the anatomical landmark from the earlobe to the nose of the patient.
The oropharyngeal airway is an intraoral J-shaped medical device, which is inserted in the mouth of a patient who is unconscious like in paralysis condition etc. It is important to select the appropriate size of the oropharyngeal airway tube before inserting it into the patient's mouth to avoid any complications. The airway device prevents the closure of the epiglottis and opens the mouth for breathing. It is mainly used when the patient is at respiratory obstruction by the formation of excessive mucous or blockage of the airway by the tongue.
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in which following situations can telephonic contact be made with a Medicare eligible consumer?
When confirming receipt of mailed information.
When the consumer consented to be contacted for sales activities and the permission has not yet expired.
When a member has voluntarily disenrolled from a plan and the call is for sales/marketing purposes.
Telephonic contact be made with a Medicare eligible consumer when the consumer consented to be contacted for sales activities.
What is Medicare?This is a type of healthcare insurance for people within 65 years and above and others who meet the requirement.
For telephonic contact to occur there must be permission which has not expired and consent for sales activities thereby making option B the most appropriate choice.
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Erikson's final adult developmental life stage involves reevaluating what we have done in our lives. If we feel we have done well, we have a sense of integrity. Otherwise, we have a sense of
i think so it might be i link so it might be
The charge nurse is rounding on clients in restraints. Which of the following situations would require immediate intervention by the nurse
The situation which would require immediate intervention by the nurse is C. Client in soft wrist restraints in the supine position.
What is a restraint?Restraints are devices that limit a patient's movement and keep a person from getting hurt or doing harm to others or caregivers.
Hence, we can see that the immediate intervention in this situation for the nurse is to use a soft wrist restraint on the client who is in a supine position.
The other situations cannot be an immediate intervention because the other positions are not suitable for an immediate restraint.
Note that restraints are usually jackets or vests and are used as a last resort.
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The complete question
The charge nurse is rounding on clients in restraints. Which of the following situations would require immediate intervention by the nurse?
1.Client in a belt restraint in the semi-Fowler position
2.Client in mitten restraints in the side-lying position
3.Client in soft wrist restraints in the supine position
4.Client in vest restraint in the high-Fowler position
A nurse caring for a client in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) , Which of the following is the priority intervention by the nurse quizlet
The priority intervention when treating a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is the intravenous administration of fluids, electrolytes, and insulin.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).A potentially fatal Diabetes Mellitus consequence is diabetic ketoacidosis. Common symptoms of DKA are:
Vomiting, stomach discomfort, gasping for air, excessive urination, weakness, disorientation, loss of consciousness,"fruity" odorSymptoms generally appear quickly. DKA may appear in people who have never had diabetes before as their first noticeable symptom.
DKA most frequently affects people with type 1 diabetes, although it can also happen to people with other forms of diabetes in specific situations like improper insulin administration.
A lack of insulin causes DKA, which causes the body to resort to burning fatty acids instead, leading to the production of acidic ketone bodies that lead to metabolic acidosis (an acid-base disorder).
When a client is in DKA, the top priority is to IV administer fluids (the excessive urination leads to dehydration), replace the electrolytes (DKA causes severe alteration in the normal concentrations of electrolytes; these need to be replaced for the correct amount to secure the normal functioning of many organs) and insulin (this reverses the DKA).
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prepare sop for sickling by microscopy method
SOP (Standard Operating Procedure) for sickling (SCD) involves checking for presence of hemoglobin S.
What is the SOP for sickling?Sickling or Sickle-cell disorder (SCD) is when the hemoglobin inside red blood cells sticks or clumps together, causing the cell to become fragile, rigid, and crescent or sickle-shaped.This is a genetic disorder affecting hemoglobin of RBCs.Diagnostic testing in potentially affected individuals is usually undertaken prenatally, or at or soon after birth. A sickle cell test looks only for the presence of an abnormal form of hemoglobin called hemoglobin S, which causes SCD. A negative test is normal. It means your hemoglobin is normal. A positive test result may mean you have sickle cell trait or SCD.The complete blood count (CBC) is a primary test to characterize the different types of anemia.
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is usually elevated in SCD patients receiving hydroxyurea (medication used in SCD). Moreover, elevated red cell distribution width (RDW) is seen in SCD patients because of RBCs’ different subpopulations.Although CBC is widely used to describe the hematological parameter as valuable information, it is insufficient to give a complete picture of patients’ diagnoses.Therefore, peripheral blood smear (PBF) analysis is performed to examine SCD.
PBF examines the morphology of the blood cell and evaluates any microscopic changes.The preparation of these blood smear slides is relatively simple, rapid, and inexpensive.In sickle cell anemia, moderate to severe anisopoikilocyte (different shape of RBCs) is seen with a variable number of elongated sickle cells.Although peripheral blood smear is an informative hematological test, it relies on the pathologist’s skills.Learn more about sickle-cell anemia here:
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Which statement would the nurse include in teaching about the psychodynamic theory of conversion disorder
The emotions associated with traumatic events are transformed into physical symptoms." is the statement which will be included to teach psychodynamic theory of conversion disorder.
What is Psychodynamic theory of conversion disorder?This states that the occurrence of some symptoms which aren't caused by organic diseases are usually as a result of psychological factors
Conditions such as traumatic events etc usually have an effect on the physical body.
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Review the 4 cases below. Pose the potential condition/s. Consider how a psychologist would analyze the situations. What questions would each ask? What would each be interested in observing? What type of treatment would each be likely to suggest? Choose from the treatment options listed in your book to develop treatment programs for these individuals based on their situations. Elaborate on your responses and include your reasoning for your answers.
Case #11 – Avery. A 32-year-old woman and a high-powered stock broker, Avery is frustrated by her inability to quit smoking. She has tried several times and has been successful for brief periods, but she always starts smoking again when her life becomes stressful.
Case #4 – Margo. Margo, 28, has been experiencing periods of extreme sadness which makes it difficult for her to cope with life, coupled with extreme anxiousness about literally everything. She experiences panic attacks about driving, going to certain stores, doing her banking, and various other daily life activities. These periods are followed by times where she feels she is bursting with energy and is on top of the world.
Case #1 – Edward. Edward, 53, has been having difficulty since a car accident which killed his wife and three children two years ago. He has difficulty in day-to-day activities, and has been questioning his very existence. He has stopped going to work, lost his home, and has been staying with his elderly parents, unable to return to the house that reminds him of his former life.
Case #10 – George. In his mid-thirties, George finds that he is having difficulty establishing an intimate relationship with the woman he is dating. He cares for her and would someday like to get married, but he is reluctant to make a commitment.
A. Case #: Case #11 – Avery
Considerations:
Possible Diagnosis/diagnoses:
Recommendations for treatment (include multiple treatment approaches):
B. Case #: Case #4 – Margo
Considerations:
Possible Diagnosis/diagnoses:
Recommendations for treatment (include multiple treatment approaches):
C. Case #: Case #1 – Edward.
Considerations:
Possible Diagnosis/diagnoses:
Recommendations for treatment (include multiple treatment approaches):
D. Case #: Case #10 – George
Considerations:
Possible Diagnosis/diagnoses:
Recommendations for treatment (include multiple treatment approaches):
Psychological follow-up is nothing more than seeking an emotional balance to deal with the work routine and life's obstacles.
A. Case #: Case # 11 - AveryConsiderations: compulsive smokerPossible diagnoses/diagnoses: nicotine addictionRecommendations for treatment (include various treatment approaches): follow-up and nicotine treatmentB. Case nº: Case nº 4 - MargoConsiderations: need psychiatric follow-upPossible diagnoses/diagnoses: bipolarRecommendations for treatment (include various treatment approaches): anti-bipolarsC. Case #: Case #1 – Edward.Considerations: need psychiatric follow-upPossible diagnoses/diagnoses: post-traumatic depressionRecommendations for treatment (include various treatment approaches): follow-up and anti-aciolyticsD. Case nº: Case nº 10 - GeorgeConsiderations: need psychiatric follow-upPossible diagnoses/diagnoses: affectivity disorderRecommendations for treatment (include various treatment approaches): follow-up and anti-aciolytics.With this information, we can conclude that During psychological counseling, what you should do is just be yourself without worrying about judgments or invasion of privacy.
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Online Engagement with Surgical Treatments for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia: Are Minimally Invasive Surgical Therapies Outpacing the Gold Standard
No minimally Invasive Surgical Therapies are not outpacing the Gold Standard.
Prostatic HyperplasiaBenign prostatic hyperplasia, or BPH, is an enlargement of the prostate gland in males that is not a malignant condition. Additionally known as benign prostatic blockage or benign prostatic obstruction, benign prostatic hyperplasia has these names. As a man ages, the prostate grows in two distinct phases. Early in adolescence, the prostate doubles in size, which is the first sign. Nearly all of a man's life is spent in the second phase of growth, which starts at age 25. With the second growth phase comes benign prostatic hyperplasia quite frequently. The urethra is pressed up against and compressed as the prostate enlarges. Intensification of the bladder wall When the bladder eventually becomes weak and can no longer entirely empty, some pee may remain in the bladder.
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5. How can proper nutrition, rest, exercise, and following God's standards of morality and self-control help prevent disease
Proper nutrition, rest, exercise, and following God's standards of morality and self-control help to body to be overall healthy.
Nutrition is provided to the body by the ingested food. The macromolecules are broken down into micromolecules with the help of enzymes and absorbed into the circulation. Exercise is a key component to improve the metabolism of the body and muscle strength. The resistance training exercises increase muscle endurance. A balanced diet is necessary to avoid muscle protein breakdown. Essential amino acids are obtained from the recommended protein sources like milk-based whey protein, soy-based isolate, and egg protein. Following proper nutrition, exercise and self-control lead to a healthier life.
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A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival
Rapid transport to trauma center will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival and not let her go into an extreme shock.
why does people go in shock while being in an accident ?
Blood pressure falls as a result of the blood vessels dilating and relaxing below the spinal damage. Septic - an infection causes blood vessels to expand, lowering blood pressure. For instance, septic shock might be brought on by an E. coli infection.
what is intrathoracic bleeding ?
In both blunt and penetrating trauma, intrathoracic bleeding most usually presents as hemothorax, and a severe hemothorax can lead in hypotension and hemodynamic shock.
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Which of the following methods would the nurse use to collect a urine sample for culture and sensitivity testing in a 16-month-old client
____________________ is a condition characterized by poor muscle control, spasticity, speech defects, and other neurologic deficiencies.
Ataxia is a condition characterized by poor muscle control, spasticity, speech defects, and other neurologic deficiencies.
Ataxia describes poor muscle control that reasons clumsy voluntary movements. it may cause problems with walking and balance, hand coordination, speech and swallowing, and eye movements. Ataxia usually results from damage to the part of the brain that controls muscle coordination (cerebellum) or its connections.
Ataxia is typically due to harm to part of the brain called the cerebellum, but, it could also be a result of damage to the spinal cord or other nerves. The spinal cord is a long bundle of nerves that runs down the spine and connects the brain to all other parts of the body. There may be no specific remedy for ataxia. In some cases, treating the underlying motive might also help improve the ataxia. In other cases, including ataxia that effects by chickenpox or other viral infections, it is likely to resolve on its own.
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A nurse is monitoring a client who has Graves' disease for the development of thyroid storm. The nurse should report which of the following findings to the provider
The nurse should report hypertension to the provider about the client who has grave's disease.
what is Grave's disease ?
An autoimmune condition called Graves' disease can lead in hyperthyroidism, or an overactive thyroid. The thyroid is a tiny gland at front of your throat that resemble a butterfly.
what causes grave's disease ?
An autoimmune disorder called Graves' disease arises when your immune system erroneously attacking your thyroid, which makes it hyperactive. Even though there is no known cause for Graves' disease, it mostly affects young to middle-aged women and commonly runs in families. Additionally, smoking can make a person more likely to acquire it.
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A client is prescribed tamoxifen, 20 mg by mouth twice per day for treatment of breast cancer. The client reports to the nurse that she has worsening bone pain. How should the nurse respond
The nurse should respond in a way that Acute worsening of bone pain commonly indicates that the drug will produce a good response.
Tamoxifen is a powerful hormone treatment used to treat breast cancer that has hormone receptors. It can significantly lower the incidence of invasive cancer and cancer recurrence. Tamoxifen is used by certain people to reduce their risk of breast cancer.
A known side effect of using tamoxifen is the increase in bone pain. But, it is believed that tamoxifen works if you see acute worsening in bone pain. It is just a part of the process and ultimately the drug will produce a good response.
Therefore, The nurse should respond in a way that Acute worsening of bone pain commonly indicates that the drug will produce a good response.
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The nurse wants to maintain a neutral thermal environment for her assigned neonatal clients. Which intervention would best ensure that this goal is met
which clinical manifestation is characterized by eczematous eruption with well defined geometric margins
According to the research, contact dermatitis manifestation is characterized by eczematous eruption with well defined geometric margins.
What is contact dermatitis?It is an inflammatory reaction of the skin to an irritant that has a toxic effect on the tissue.
It is highly prevalent in the health area, it presents with an eczematous skin rash that produces great itching and discomfort.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, contact dermatitis manifestation is characterized by eczematous eruption with well defined geometric margins.
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A client has been diagnosed with acute rhinosinusitis caused by a bacterial organism. What antibiotic of choice for treatment of this disorder does the nurse anticipate educating the client about
Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid (Augmentin)
In penicillin-allergic patients or those who are unresponsive to amoxicillin, amoxicillin-clavulanate is appropriate.
What is Acute rhinosinusitis ?Acute sinusitis, also called acute rhinosinusitis, is a short-term inflammation of the membranes that line your nose and surrounding sinuses. This impedes your ability to drain mucus from your nose and sinuses.
Acute sinusitis is most commonly due to a cold causing viral infection.Augmentin is FDA-approved to treat many different infections, including sinus infections. Augmentin is also taken orally and is available in several strengths.Augmentin is a combination of two different antibiotics — amoxicillin and clavulanate. Clavulanate helps amoxicillin work better against certain bacteriaLearn more about Acute rhinosinusitis here:
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After the shock is delivered (if advised), you should continue giving CPR until which of the following
All the above.
The person shows an obvious sign of life, another trained responder or EMS personnel take over and you are too exhausted to continue.
What is CPR?When someone's breathing or heartbeat have stopped due to an emergency, such as a heart attack or a near-drowning, cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) can help save their life. The American Heart Association advises performing quick, forceful chest compressions to begin CPR.In an emergency, cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) can help save a person's life if their breathing or heart stops. A person is in cardiac arrest when their heart stops beating. The heart is unable to pump blood to the rest of the body during cardiac arrest, including the brain and lungs.The acronym "CAB" makes it simple to remember the three essential components of CPR: compressions, airway, and breathing. "C" stands for compressions. Compressing your chest can improve blood flow to your heart, brain, and other organs. Before giving two rescue breaths during CPR, 30 chest compressions are given.Learn more about cardiopulmonary resuscitation here:
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Disclaimer: The question given in the portal is incomplete. Here the complete question.
Question: You should continue CPR until:
a. the person shows an obvious sign of life.
b. another trained responder or EMS personnel take over
c. you are too exhausted to continue
d. all of the above
Beauchamp LC, Nichols KR, Knoderer CA. Outcomes of Extended Infusion Cefepime in Pediatric Patients. Infect Dis Clin Pract 2019;27:283-7.
The pharmacokinetics of beta-lactam antibiotics favor administration via an extended infusion.
The purpose of this study was to compare clinical outcomes between extended and standard infusions in children.
What are the results of Extended Infusion Cefepime in Pediatric Patients ?A total of 551 patients (258 extended infusion, 293 standard infusion) met criteria for evaluation. Clinical outcomes among the entire population were similar
A subanalysis of select populations demonstrated decreased mortality in critical care patients (2.1% vs 19.6%, p = 0.006)Outcomes were similar between extended and standard infusions in children. Subgroup analyses suggest a possible mortality benefit in the critically ill and decreased readmission rate in bone marrow transplant patients.Learn more about Pediatric here:
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Nurses often ask the Board about what it means to abandon their patients. Though the Board does not use this term in the rules, what specific portion of Board Rule 217.12, Unprofessional Conduct, provides directions for the nurse regarding job abandonment and conduct that may also be Board-reportable
Paragraph (12) of Board Rule 217.12, Unprofessional Conduct, provides directions for the nurse regarding job abandonment and conduct that may also be Board-reportable.
Unprofessional Conduct is defined by the Medical Practice Act as "any departure from or failure to conform to the minimal standards of acceptable and prevailing medical practice, and shall also include, but not be limited to, the prescribing or use of drugs, treatments, or diagnostic procedures which are detrimental to the patient as determined by the minimal standards of acceptable medical care.
" Unprofessional Conduct includes, but is not limited to, physical abuse of a patient, insufficient record keeping, failing to recognize or respond to common symptoms, prescribing drugs in excess or without a valid reason, having a physical or mental impairment that prevents one from safely practicing within the parameters of one's license or certificate, performing duties that are outside the parameters of one's license or certificate, and dishonesty.
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A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who has a gunshot wound to the abdomen.which of the following should the nurse take first
Initiate airborne precautions should nurse take first.
What is airborne?Pathogenic bacteria tiny enough to be released from an infected person through coughing, sneezing, laughing, intimate personal contact, or aerosolization of the germ are what cause airborne infections. The released bacteria hang about in the air on dust, water, and respiratory droplets.Infectious illnesses frequently target the thymus as a target organ.Cough or sneeze into your elbow or a handkerchief. Always wash your hands. Clean common areas frequently, including handles, counters, and doorknobs.When an infected individual sneezes or coughs, tiny respiratory droplets get aerosolized, which allows bacteria or viruses to spread through the air. The infectious droplets can land on healthy people's eyes, noses, and mouths or they can inhale them.Learn more about airborne here:
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A man with heart disease lives in a family that eats a lot of red meat. What would a physician have to do to determine if the man's heart disease is entirely related to his environment
Analyze the patient's diet to quantify cholesterol intake.
What happen when the patient eat red meat with heart disease?All red meat has a high percentage of saturated fatty acids, which can significantly raise the body's level of harmful cholesterol and lead to cardiac issues. Saturated fatty acids can build up in the body after eating this kind of meat in excess, which can lead to a number of issues.Since it is known that the patient comes from a family that consumes a lot of red meat, the doctor will need to pay close attention to the patient's diet in order to determine whether the man's heart condition is entirely caused by his environment.Heart and stroke disorders can be exacerbated by environmental risks. Environmental dangers include air pollution, arsenic, lead, and extreme heat should be avoided by older persons.Smoking, high blood pressure, and high cholesterol are major risk factors for heart disease. Diabetes and other medical disorders and lifestyle decisions can also increase a person's risk for heart disease. Obesity and overweight.Learn more about heart disease here:
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The most common nutritional concern in adolescence is____ Group of answer choices a. ADHD b. early maturation c. late maturation d. obesity
Obesity is the most common nutritional concern in adolescence because of the overeating.
What is the most common nutritional concern during adolescence?The nutritional concern during adolescence include problems of overeating and consistently making poor food choices, resulting in obesity. Many adolescents develop problems with unhealthy and restrictive dieting without meeting the minimum nutritional requirements that are necessary for healthy growth and development of an adolescence.
So we can conclude that Obesity is the most common nutritional concern in adolescence because of the overeating.
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