D. Rotational and rollover motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts
Close to one-third of all fatalities involving motor vehicle occupants are caused by rollover crashes (ROCs). ROCs are underreported even though they represent a frequent and significant mechanism of damage.The primary cause of illness and mortality in the young population is motor vehicle collisions (MVCs). One of the deadliest types of MVCs are rollover collisions (ROCs). A crash is considered to have occurred when the vehicle rotated by less than 90 degrees around any longitudinal or lateral axis. Because most ROCs occur on highways, there are significant concerns about driving safety. Every year, ROCs involving 350,000 passengers in 220,000 light motor vehicles occur in the US. These crashes resulted in 9000 occupant deaths and 14,100 serious injuries, while 224,000 victims had mild to moderate injuries.learn more about multiple impacts here: https://brainly.com/question/15834716
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The nurse is assessing the stools of a 36-hour-old neonate who is being breastfed. The nurse determines that the stools are within normal parameters based on which finding
The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative craniotomy with bone flap removal. The nurse notes clear wound drainage saturating the dressing over the incision. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate at this time
After the shock is delivered (if advised), you should continue giving CPR until which of the following
All the above.
The person shows an obvious sign of life, another trained responder or EMS personnel take over and you are too exhausted to continue.
What is CPR?When someone's breathing or heartbeat have stopped due to an emergency, such as a heart attack or a near-drowning, cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) can help save their life. The American Heart Association advises performing quick, forceful chest compressions to begin CPR.In an emergency, cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) can help save a person's life if their breathing or heart stops. A person is in cardiac arrest when their heart stops beating. The heart is unable to pump blood to the rest of the body during cardiac arrest, including the brain and lungs.The acronym "CAB" makes it simple to remember the three essential components of CPR: compressions, airway, and breathing. "C" stands for compressions. Compressing your chest can improve blood flow to your heart, brain, and other organs. Before giving two rescue breaths during CPR, 30 chest compressions are given.Learn more about cardiopulmonary resuscitation here:
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Disclaimer: The question given in the portal is incomplete. Here the complete question.
Question: You should continue CPR until:
a. the person shows an obvious sign of life.
b. another trained responder or EMS personnel take over
c. you are too exhausted to continue
d. all of the above
____is characterized by convulsions and sometimes coma. treatment for this condition includes the delivery of the fetus.
A nurse on a psychiatric unit is planning care for an unconscious teenage client who ingested a non-corrosive substance that has no recommended antidote. Which of the following methods for gastric emptying is appropriate
The most appropriate gastric emptying in someone who ingested a non-corrosive substance that has no recommended antidote is activated charcoal.
What is Activated charcoal?This is the type of charcoal formed when it is heated in the presence of a gas thereby creating pores or spaces in its structure.
Since the substance is non corrosive and has no antidote then it is best to use activated charcoal as it helps to filter the contaminants or toxic substance thereby making it the most appropriate choice.
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The remaining part of the question is:
The nurse should recommend performing gastric lavage with which substance?
A patient presents a new prescription order for labetalol. The patient's computer profile shows the following medications: glyburide, albuterol, furosemide, atenolol, and amlodipine. The labetalol prescription order is a therapeutic duplication of:
The labetalol prescription order is a therapeutic duplication of: atenolol.
Atenolol: medicine for high blood pressure and angina.
Side effects of atenolol -
Feeling sleepy, tired or dizzy. As your body gets used to atenolol, these side effects should wear off.Cold fingers or toes. Put your hands or feet under warm running water, massage them and wiggle your fingers and toes.Feeling sick or being sick (nausea or vomiting) Diarrhoea.Stomach pain.Why was atenolol taken off the market?
The recall of Pacific Atenolol 50mg tablets is due to a manufacturing problem. The problem could result in some tablets, dispensed after 1 January 2010, containing a higher dose of atenolol than intended.Learn more about atenolol
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A 3-year-old child is having difficulty breathing. What finding would most likely lead you to suspect an upper airway obstruction in this child?
The finding would most likely lead you to suspect an upper airway obstruction in a 3-year-old child is Increased inspiratory effort and retractions.
What is upper airway obstruction?Upper airway obstruction is any problem that difficult gas exchange in a person and therefore he/she cannot breathe.
The upper airways include the nose, nasal cavity, and throat larynx, which may be in this case are narrowed and thereby compromise ventilation.
In conclusion, the finding would most likely lead you to suspect an upper airway obstruction in a 3-year-old child is Increased inspiratory effort and retractions.
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Beauchamp LC, Nichols KR, Knoderer CA. Outcomes of Extended Infusion Cefepime in Pediatric Patients. Infect Dis Clin Pract 2019;27:283-7.
The pharmacokinetics of beta-lactam antibiotics favor administration via an extended infusion.
The purpose of this study was to compare clinical outcomes between extended and standard infusions in children.
What are the results of Extended Infusion Cefepime in Pediatric Patients ?A total of 551 patients (258 extended infusion, 293 standard infusion) met criteria for evaluation. Clinical outcomes among the entire population were similar
A subanalysis of select populations demonstrated decreased mortality in critical care patients (2.1% vs 19.6%, p = 0.006)Outcomes were similar between extended and standard infusions in children. Subgroup analyses suggest a possible mortality benefit in the critically ill and decreased readmission rate in bone marrow transplant patients.Learn more about Pediatric here:
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____________________ is a condition characterized by poor muscle control, spasticity, speech defects, and other neurologic deficiencies.
Ataxia is a condition characterized by poor muscle control, spasticity, speech defects, and other neurologic deficiencies.
Ataxia describes poor muscle control that reasons clumsy voluntary movements. it may cause problems with walking and balance, hand coordination, speech and swallowing, and eye movements. Ataxia usually results from damage to the part of the brain that controls muscle coordination (cerebellum) or its connections.
Ataxia is typically due to harm to part of the brain called the cerebellum, but, it could also be a result of damage to the spinal cord or other nerves. The spinal cord is a long bundle of nerves that runs down the spine and connects the brain to all other parts of the body. There may be no specific remedy for ataxia. In some cases, treating the underlying motive might also help improve the ataxia. In other cases, including ataxia that effects by chickenpox or other viral infections, it is likely to resolve on its own.
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A nurse is reviewing the medication record for a client who has intrinsic kidney injury the nurse should consider which of the following medications has nephrotoxic adverse effects
Amphotericin (Amphoteric) is a medication that has nephrotoxic drug effect.
What is a Nephrotoxic drug?Nephrotoxic drugs are characterized as having the potential to harm the kidneys. The kidneys may suffer immediate harm from certain medications.
Nephrotoxicity is defined as a rapid decline in kidney function brought on by the toxic effects of drugs and substances. There are numerous types, and some medications may have multiple negative effects on renal function. Nephrotoxic compounds are known as nephrotoxins.
Drugs that are nephrotoxic frequently cause inflammation in the proximal tubules, glomerulus, and surrounding cellular matrix before fiberizing the kidney tissue. Glomerulonephritis, acute and chronic interstitial nephritis, and other forms of inflammation that affect normal kidney functioning and cause toxicity are examples of this.
Amphotericin B side effects that affect kidney function include metabolic acidosis caused by amphotericin B, urine magnesium wasting and hypomagnesemia, and urinary potassium wasting and hypokalemia.
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A nurse who is utilizing the Stetler model for the implementation of EBP would recognize that the model provides a method for conducting which of the following processes
The goal of the model is to ensure that the latest research findings and best practices are quickly and appropriately incorporated into patient care.
Evidence-based practice (EBP) improves the quality of patient care and helps control healthcare costs
What is Stetler model for the implementation of EBP ?The Stetler model of evidence-based practice outlines criteria to determine the desirability and feasibility of applying a study or studies to address an issue.
The Stetler Model enables practitioners to assess how research findings and other pertinent evidence are implemented in clinical practice. The model examines how to use evidence to create change that fosters patient-centered care.Learn more about Evidence based practice here:
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Nurses often ask the Board about what it means to abandon their patients. Though the Board does not use this term in the rules, what specific portion of Board Rule 217.12, Unprofessional Conduct, provides directions for the nurse regarding job abandonment and conduct that may also be Board-reportable
Paragraph (12) of Board Rule 217.12, Unprofessional Conduct, provides directions for the nurse regarding job abandonment and conduct that may also be Board-reportable.
Unprofessional Conduct is defined by the Medical Practice Act as "any departure from or failure to conform to the minimal standards of acceptable and prevailing medical practice, and shall also include, but not be limited to, the prescribing or use of drugs, treatments, or diagnostic procedures which are detrimental to the patient as determined by the minimal standards of acceptable medical care.
" Unprofessional Conduct includes, but is not limited to, physical abuse of a patient, insufficient record keeping, failing to recognize or respond to common symptoms, prescribing drugs in excess or without a valid reason, having a physical or mental impairment that prevents one from safely practicing within the parameters of one's license or certificate, performing duties that are outside the parameters of one's license or certificate, and dishonesty.
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Under an individual health insurance policy, the time limit of certain defenses provision states that nonfraudulent misstatements first become incontestable two years
The incontestability of the insurer usually prevents the providers from voiding coverage if the insured misstates nonfraudulent information
What is health insurance policy?Health insurance policy is a special type of insurance which covers medical expenses that arise due to an illness.
So therefore, the incontestability of the insurer usually prevents the providers from voiding coverage if the insured misstates nonfraudulent information
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A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is pregnant. The nurse should expect which of the following laboratory values to increase
The laboratory values which will increase in pregnant women is Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone (hCG).
What is Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone?This hormone is produced by the placenta during the course of pregnancy in human females.
They are usually detected by laboratory tests as a sign of pregnancy thereby making it the most appropriate choice.
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Which employee of a health-care organization would likely be considered a middle-level manager?
A. The hospital's nursing supervisor.
B. An experienced primary care nurse who mentors other nurses.
C. The team leader of the hospital's wound care specialists.
D. The charge nurse who oversees day shifts on a medical unit.
A) The hospital's nursing supervisor of a health-care organization would likely be considered a middle-level manager.
With their oversight of patient-care operations, assignment and supervision of staff nurses, and identification and implementation of quality improvements, nursing supervisors serve as a vital connection between hospital management and clinical care.Clinical experience, leadership, communication and cooperation skills, as well as emotional intelligence, are qualities that an effective nurse manager must have to satisfy the demands of the position. These traits build stronger teams, which leads to better nursing care on the floor.All nurse managers supervise, however not all supervisors are in charge of running individual units. The people who used to be known as "head nurses" who were in charge of managing a floor over three shifts are now frequently referred to as "nurse managers."learn more about nursing supervisor here: https://brainly.com/question/23942174
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prepare sop for sickling by microscopy method
SOP (Standard Operating Procedure) for sickling (SCD) involves checking for presence of hemoglobin S.
What is the SOP for sickling?Sickling or Sickle-cell disorder (SCD) is when the hemoglobin inside red blood cells sticks or clumps together, causing the cell to become fragile, rigid, and crescent or sickle-shaped.This is a genetic disorder affecting hemoglobin of RBCs.Diagnostic testing in potentially affected individuals is usually undertaken prenatally, or at or soon after birth. A sickle cell test looks only for the presence of an abnormal form of hemoglobin called hemoglobin S, which causes SCD. A negative test is normal. It means your hemoglobin is normal. A positive test result may mean you have sickle cell trait or SCD.The complete blood count (CBC) is a primary test to characterize the different types of anemia.
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is usually elevated in SCD patients receiving hydroxyurea (medication used in SCD). Moreover, elevated red cell distribution width (RDW) is seen in SCD patients because of RBCs’ different subpopulations.Although CBC is widely used to describe the hematological parameter as valuable information, it is insufficient to give a complete picture of patients’ diagnoses.Therefore, peripheral blood smear (PBF) analysis is performed to examine SCD.
PBF examines the morphology of the blood cell and evaluates any microscopic changes.The preparation of these blood smear slides is relatively simple, rapid, and inexpensive.In sickle cell anemia, moderate to severe anisopoikilocyte (different shape of RBCs) is seen with a variable number of elongated sickle cells.Although peripheral blood smear is an informative hematological test, it relies on the pathologist’s skills.Learn more about sickle-cell anemia here:
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Because sedimentary rocks are formed at Earth's surface, they provide clues about past geologic events and settings. A low energy, quiet environment such as a lagoon or lake bed provide the perfect setting for the formation of
Shale and evaporites
What are shale and evaporites?In terms of stratigraphic and geochemical coherence, the relationships between oil shales, evaporites, and sedimentary ore deposits can be categorized. Evaporite deposition is frequently followed by oil shale and black shale deposition on continental red beds. This transgressive-regressive sequence produces stratigraphic coherence and depicts an orderly succession of depositional conditions in space and time.
The productivity and preservation of a sediment, both of which are aided by salty settings, determine how much organic carbon is present in that sediment. Through complexation by organic matter and scavenging by biogenic particles, oil shales and black shales are frequently enriched in heavy metals.
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Lisa is 65 and eligible for medicare how does she sign up
Answer:
Visiting your local Social Security office.
Calling Social Security at 800-772-1213.
Mailing a signed and dated letter to Social Security that includes your name, Social Security number, and the date you would like to be enrolled in Medicare.
Or, by applying online at www.ssa.gov.
A man with heart disease lives in a family that eats a lot of red meat. What would a physician have to do to determine if the man's heart disease is entirely related to his environment
Analyze the patient's diet to quantify cholesterol intake.
What happen when the patient eat red meat with heart disease?All red meat has a high percentage of saturated fatty acids, which can significantly raise the body's level of harmful cholesterol and lead to cardiac issues. Saturated fatty acids can build up in the body after eating this kind of meat in excess, which can lead to a number of issues.Since it is known that the patient comes from a family that consumes a lot of red meat, the doctor will need to pay close attention to the patient's diet in order to determine whether the man's heart condition is entirely caused by his environment.Heart and stroke disorders can be exacerbated by environmental risks. Environmental dangers include air pollution, arsenic, lead, and extreme heat should be avoided by older persons.Smoking, high blood pressure, and high cholesterol are major risk factors for heart disease. Diabetes and other medical disorders and lifestyle decisions can also increase a person's risk for heart disease. Obesity and overweight.Learn more about heart disease here:
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The nurse wants to maintain a neutral thermal environment for her assigned neonatal clients. Which intervention would best ensure that this goal is met
A nurse is caring for a client experiencing nausea, vomiting and anorexia due to chemotherapy treatment. What actions should the nurse take to treat this side effect
The actions which a nurse which is caring for a client experiencing nausea, vomiting and anorexia due to chemotherapy treatment should take to treat this side effect are:
Avoiding smellsAvoid anything that triggers nauseaTaking water in between mealsTaking appropriate medicationsWhat is nausea?Nausea is feeling or a sensation of illness or discomfort in the digestive system, usually characterized by a strong urge to vomit.
Vomiting means to regurgitate or eject the contents of the stomach through the mouth.
Anorexia is the loss of appetite, especially as a result of disease.
So therefore, the actions which a nurse which is caring for a client experiencing nausea, vomiting and anorexia due to chemotherapy treatment should take to treat this side effect are avoiding smells, avoid anything that triggers nausea, taking water in between meals and taking appropriate medications.
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Traditional Chinese medicine hypothesizes that qi is a force that is essential to health and that acupuncture and qi gong improve health by affecting qi. Group of answer choices True False
Traditional Chinese medicine hypothesizes that qi is a force that is essential to health and that acupuncture and qi gong improve health by affecting qi is true.
Ideas of Qi typically interpreted as "vital energy" are extraordinary and are essential to Chinese medication. These structure is fundamental to Chinese medication.
Qigong is a meditation and recreational practice that has been essential for Chinese medication for a long time. Advantages of qigong incorporate brought reduced stress and nervousness, increased focus, and further developed equilibrium and adaptability. It might try and decrease your risks of specific ongoing diseases.
Qi gong articulated "chi gong," is an internal interaction that has outside movement. Qi signifies "life force," the energy that drives our body and soul. Gong is the term for important work or assembly. Qi Gong together means a type of development and psyche utilizing aim and care to direct qi to make qi work.
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A nurse is monitoring a client who has Graves' disease for the development of thyroid storm. The nurse should report which of the following findings to the provider
The nurse should report hypertension to the provider about the client who has grave's disease.
what is Grave's disease ?
An autoimmune condition called Graves' disease can lead in hyperthyroidism, or an overactive thyroid. The thyroid is a tiny gland at front of your throat that resemble a butterfly.
what causes grave's disease ?
An autoimmune disorder called Graves' disease arises when your immune system erroneously attacking your thyroid, which makes it hyperactive. Even though there is no known cause for Graves' disease, it mostly affects young to middle-aged women and commonly runs in families. Additionally, smoking can make a person more likely to acquire it.
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PBS The Amazing Human Body: Survive Viewing Guide Answer the following questions as you watch the video. 1. What is the body's number one priority in maintaining homeostasis? 2. The body needs to be at a constant temperature. What are some ways the body does this? 3. Draw the feedback loop that happens when the muscles produce CO2. 4. Describe how infection is a threat to homeostasis. 5. How does the body react to infection? 6. What are some defenses the body has to keep invaders out? 7. Draw infection as a feedback loop. 8. Can we manage pain and if so, how? 9. What is the pain study about? 10. What is the benefit of fear? When do we become fearful in human development?
In this question we watched the PBS The Amazing Human Body: Survive Viewing Guide and answered the following questions while watching the video.
What is homeostasis?Currently, homeostasis is understood as the tendency that a system has to act to maintain its own stability, even under adverse conditions and exposed to changes.
1. What is the body's number one priority in maintaining homeostasis?
Liquid balance2. The body needs to be at a constant temperature. What are some ways the body does this?
sweating and changes in blood circulation4. Describe how the infection is a threat to homeostasis.
unbalancing body temperature and balance5. How does the body react to infection?
It activates primary and secondary immune protections6. What are some defenses the body has to keep invaders at bay?
primary, secondary and tertiary immune system8. Can we control pain, and if so, how?
pain control by analgesics becomes effective according to pain intensity.9. What is the study of pain about?
the body's sensory response to an injury10. What is the benefit of fear?
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Which of the following is a common fitness assessment used for senior fitness clients? Sit-up test 1RM squat 1.5 mile run 30-second chair stand
Is a common fitness assessment used for senior fitness clients the 30 second chair support test.
30-second chair standWhat is the name of the physical fitness test for seniors?The Physical Fitness Test for the Elderly (TAFI) was used, which includes 6 tests:
Getting up from the chairArm flexionStationary Walking 2minSit and Reach the FeetGet Up and Walk and Reach Back.With this information, we can conclude that Senior fitness is fitness designed for people over the age of 55 that improves their overall health.
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How should the nurse position the electrodes for modified chest lead one (MCL I) telemetry monitoring
During telemetry monitoring, Negative electrode is placed on the upper left section of the client's chest, while positive electrode is placed on the client's mid-chest to the right of the sternum. On the left lower breast, there is a ground placement.
Electrodes and lead wires are used in telemetry systems, which are connected from the patient to a battery pack and use radio waves to convey impulses to the monitor.Telemetry is helpful for assessing a patient's capacity for activity as well as for increasing ambulation.the instructions include:
The right arm (RA) electrode should be placed close to the right shoulder, where the right arm and torso converge. Place the left arm (LA) electrode next to the left shoulder, where the left arm and torso converge. The right leg (RL) electrode should be positioned below the level of the lowest rib on the right abdominal area.learn more about telemetry here:
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The first person to conduct a large-scale case-control study on the epidemiology of breast cancer was:
A nurse is performing tracheostomy care and suctioning a client who has copious secretions. Which of the following methods should the nurse use to remove secretions
The nurse used to remove secretions by Tracheostomy suctioning. Tracheostomy suctioning two to three times with a 60-second.
Thick mucus and secretions from the trachea and lower airway that you are unable to cough out are removed by tracheostomy suctioning. In the morning and just before you go to bed at night, suctioning is performed. Following any respiratory therapies, suctioning is also carried out.
When you have a moist cough that does not clear secretions, suctioning can be necessary. and find it difficult to breathe or feel as though you are not getting enough oxygen, and you are unable to efficiently clear secretions from your throat.
No discomfort should be felt during suctioning. Although you might feel out of breath and cough, these reactions are natural and shouldn't hurt.
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A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival
Rapid transport to trauma center will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival and not let her go into an extreme shock.
why does people go in shock while being in an accident ?
Blood pressure falls as a result of the blood vessels dilating and relaxing below the spinal damage. Septic - an infection causes blood vessels to expand, lowering blood pressure. For instance, septic shock might be brought on by an E. coli infection.
what is intrathoracic bleeding ?
In both blunt and penetrating trauma, intrathoracic bleeding most usually presents as hemothorax, and a severe hemothorax can lead in hypotension and hemodynamic shock.
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The first step in analyzing a 24-hour urine specimen for quantitative protein is?
The first step in analyzing a 24-hour urine specimen for quantitative protein is subculture for bacteria. (Add appropriate preservative) .
24-hour urine protein measures the amount of protein released in urine over a 24-hour period. The test is used to check kidney function.
A 24-hour urine collection is done by collecting your urine in a special container over a full 24-hour period. The container must be kept cool until the urine is returned to the lab.
Urine is made up of water and dissolved chemicals, such as sodium and potassium. It also contains urea. This is made when protein breaks down. It contains creatinine, which is formed from muscle breakdown.
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