Lauren's vet commented that her puppy gained 10% in weight since the first visit. Write an expression that could be evaluated to show the puppy's current weight. Use a variable to represent the weight of the puppy at the first visit. Write the expression in simplified form. If the puppy gains another 10% in weight from the current visit to a future visit, how much will the puppy weigh? Write an expression that could be evaluated to show the puppy's future weight. Write the expression in simplified form.

Answer:

[tex](x + 9)[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] {x}^{2} + 12x + 27[/tex]

[tex](x {}^{2} + 3x) + (9x + 27)[/tex]

[tex]x(x + 3) + 9(x + 3)[/tex]

[tex](x + 3)(x + 9)[/tex]

[tex] \red { \orange {\boxed {\boxed{\star Option \: 1 \star}}}}[/tex]

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#ILoveMath

Answer:

i hate biden

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 0/9

Step-by-step explanation: Hi there!

First, we have to put the points into the y2-y1/x2-x1 form.

Take the y value from the second point (-8) and the first point y value (-8)

and subtract.

-8 - (-8)

to get 0

Now we have to get our denominator by taking the x value from our second point and subtracting it by our first y point.

7 - (-2)

to get 9

so when we put that together...

we get 0/9

So the answer is 0/9.

Hope this answer helps you!

Answer:

The answer is 19.

Step-by-step explanation:

You have to substitute x = 4 into the function of g(x) :

g(x) = x² + 3

g(4) = 4² + 3

g(4) = 16 + 3

g(4) = 19

Answer:

yes??? what’s the question??

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

200,000

80,000

9,000,000

10,000,000,000

What is the context of this question?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

So standard form just means 200,000 written as like 200^ something(I think)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Subtract 6.13ft from 6.57ft, and you should get .44 as your answer.

Answer:

y o = 2 sin ( π/6 ) = 2 * 1/2 = 1

x o = π / 6

y ` = 2 cos x = 2 cos (π/6) = 2 * √3 / 2 = √ 3;

m = √3

An equation of the tangent line is:

y - y o = m ( x - x o )

Answer:

y - 1 = √3 ( x - π/6 )

Step-by-step explanation

please give me brainliest     hope it helps

Answer:

I think 7.2

Step-by-step explanation:

I multiply .6 to 12 and got that

Answer:

Jack Barlow

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1/6 or 16 %

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps

Answer:

We know that

November has 30 days, which means 4 weeks and 2 days.

Step-by-step explanation:

Now, 4 weeks will contain 4 Sunday.

The remaining 2 days may be :

1. Sunday and Monday

2. Monday and Tuesday

3. Tuesday and Wednesday

4. Wednesday and Thursday

5. Thursday and Friday

6. Friday and Saturday

7. Saturday and Sunday

Total number of possible outcomes = 7

Now, favourable outcomes are : Sunday and Monday, Saturday and Sunday

Number of favourable outcomes = 2

Required probability (P)= Number of favourable outcomes /Total number of possible outcomes

P = 2/7

Answer:

a. intersecting

b. parallel

c. skew

d. intersecting

e. parallel

Answer:

-6 < x < 2

Step-by-step explanation:

-2|2x+4|+10>-6

Subtract 10 from each side

-2|2x+4|+10-10>-6-10

-2|2x+4|>-16

Divide by -2, remembering to flip the inequality

-2/-2|2x+4|>-16/-2

|2x+4|<8

We have two solutions, one positive and one negative( remember to flip the inequality)

2x+4 < 8    and 2x+4 > -8

Subtract 4 from each side

2x+4-4 < 8-4    and 2x+4-4 > -8-4

2x < 4             and   2x > -12

Divide by 2

2x/2 < 4/2             and   2x/2 > -12/2

x <2                and           x > -6

-6 < x < 2

Answer:

x<2 and x>-6

Step-by-step explanation:

First, get rid of anything on the outside of the absolute value bars. Subtract the 10 on both sides first.

-2|2x+4|+10>-6

             -10  -10

-2|2x+4|>-16

Now, divide by -2 on both sides.

-2|2x+4|>-16

/-2           /-2

|2x+4|<8

Just so you know, any time you multiply or divide by a negative, flip the inequality sign. Now because the numbers in the absolute bars are by themselves, you can start to finally solve. But, when you have an equation with absolute bars and you have the numbers in the absolute bars by themselves, you always have to split it into two equations. The equations have to be identical, but the number on the opposite side of the x has to be negative. Now, you solve both equations just like regular ones. Also, flip the sign for the inequality with the negative number.

|2x+4|<8    and     |2x+4|>-8

     -4  -4                     -4  -4

2x<4                      2x>-12

/2  /2                      /2   /2

x<2          and          x>-6

I hope this helps you out!!! Have an amazing day C:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

League A                   League B

151.12                            163.25

148                                157

26.83                             24.93

29                                  136

136                                145

167                                178

207                               256

League A in ascending order :

26.83 , 29 , 136, 148 , 151.12 , 167,207

[tex]Mean = \frac{\text{Sum of all observations}}{\text{No. of observations}}\\\\Mean = \frac{26.83+29 +136+ 148+ 151.12+ 167+207}{7}\\\\Mean =123.564[/tex]

Median = Mid value of data

n = 7

So, mid value = 4th term

Median=148

Standard deviation=[tex]\sqrt{\frac{\sum(x_i-\bar{x})^2}{n}}[/tex]=[tex]=\sqrt{\frac{(26.83-123.564)^2+(29-123.564)^2+.......+(207-123.564)^2}{7}}=63.98[/tex]

To Find Q1

Q1 is the mid value of lower quartile

Lower quartile : 26.83 , 29 , 136, 148

n = 4

Q1=82.5

To Find Q3

Q3 is the mid value of upper quartile

Upper quartile : 148 , 151.12 , 167,207

n = 4

Q3=159.06

IQR = Q3-Q1=159.06-82.5=76.56

To find outlier

(Q1-1.5IQR ,Q3+1.5IQR)

[tex](82.5-1.5\times 76.56,159.06+1.5\times 76.56)[/tex]

(-32.34,273.9)

So, There is no outlier

Maximum = 207

2)

League B in ascending order :

24.93,136,145,157,163.25,178,256

[tex]Mean = \frac{\text{Sum of all observations}}{\text{No. of observations}}\\\\Mean = \frac{24.93+136+145+157+163.25+178+256}{7}\\\\Mean =151.45[/tex]

Median = Mid value of data

n = 7

So, mid value = 4th term

Median=157

Standard deviation=[tex]\sqrt{\frac{\sum(x_i-\bar{x})^2}{n}}[/tex]=[tex]=\sqrt{\frac{(24.93-151.45)^2+(136-151.45)^2+.......+(256-151.45)^2}{7}}=68.42[/tex]

To Find Q1

Q1 is the mid value of lower quartile

Lower quartile : 24.93,136,145,157

n = 4

[tex]Median = \frac{\frac{n}{2} \text{th term}+(\frac{n}{2}+1) \text{th term}}{2}\\Median = \frac{\frac{4}{2} \text{th term}+(\frac{4}{2}+1) \text{th term}}{2}\\Median = \frac{2 \text{th term}+3 \text{th term}}{2}\\Median = \frac{136+145}{2}=140.5[/tex]

Q1=140.5

To Find Q3

Q3 is the mid value of upper quartile

Upper quartile : 157,163.25,178,256

n = 4

Q3=170.625

IQR = Q3-Q1=170.625-140.5=30.125

To find outlier

(Q1-1.5IQR ,Q3+1.5IQR)

[tex](140.5-1.5\times 30.125,170.625+1.5\times 30.125)[/tex]

(95.3125,215.8125)

24.93 and 256 are outliers  

Maximum = 256

Answer:

OMG yessss

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

21 or 12

Step-by-step explanation:

Suppose, the number of one of the houses is “xy”, whose numerical value = (10x + y).

So, the number of the other house is “yx”, whose numerical value = (10y + x).

Let, “xy” > “yx”.

Now, difference of house numbers = {(10x + y) - (10y + x)} = {9 * (x - y)}; so the difference is a multiple of 9.

Now, the smallest positive number, divisible by 9, that ends with 2 is 72 = (9 * 8).

So, (x - y) = 8.

Since, 0 ≤ x, y ≤ 9; so, there are two solutions in hand:

I) x = 8, y = 0……………………..this makes the house numbers: “80” and “08”.

II) x = 9, y = 1…………………..this makes the house numbers: “91” and “19”.

So, the lowest possible numbers of the houses are “80” and “8” (not “91” and “19”).

A single digit number can not have its reverse number. hence 10,20,30,40,50,60,70,80 and 90 can not be the house number

Reverse of these numbers is same, hence 11,22,33,44,55,66,77,88 and 99 can not be the house number

For other reverse numbers the difference will be in multiples of 9 like 9,18,27,36,45,54,63,72,81

As the difference between house numbers ends in two, the lowest possible numbers of our house are 19 and 91

When 0 (zero) also considred as part of house number, the lowest possible numbers of our house are 08 and 80

Answer:

r=32/7

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's solve your equation step-by-step.

Step 1: Simplify both sides of the equation.

1/2r + 2 (3/4r - 1) = 1/4r + 6

Step 1: Simplify both sides of the equation.

1/2r + 2 (3/4r - 1) = 1/4r + 6

1/2r+(2)(3/4r)+(2)(-1)=1/4r+6(Distribute)

1/2r+3/2r+-2=1/4r+6

(1/2r+3/2r)+(-2)=1/4r+6(Combine Like Terms)

2r+-2=1/4r+6

2r-2=1/4r+6

Step 2: Subtract 1/4r from both sides.

2r-2-1/4r=14r+6-14r

7/4r-2=6

Step 3: Add 2 to both sides.

7/4r-2+2=6+2

7/4r=8

Step 4: Multiply both sides by 4/7.

(4/7)*(7/4r)=(4/7)*(8)

r=32/7

Answer: r=32/7

hope this helps :)

Answer:

[tex]\frac{-19}{8}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{-3}{4}-\frac{13}{8}[/tex]

[tex]-\frac{3}{2^2}-\frac{13}{2^3}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{2(-3)+(-13)}{2^3}=\frac{-19}{8}[/tex]

hope it helps u

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2.4

Step-by-step explanation:

20 characters nsnsjnsjs

Step-by-step explanation:

1. y = -3

2. x= -23

3. r = 8

4. b= 15

Answer:

The number of pink pens can be 19 .

Step-by-step explanation:

Total Number of pens = 20

Let x be the number of pink pens

We are supposed to find If the probability of choosing a pink pen is close to 1, how many pink pens would you expect to see in Amanda's bag

Probability of choosing a pink pen = [tex]\frac{\text{Number of pink pens}}{\text{Total Number of pens}}[/tex]

Probability of choosing a pink pen =[tex]\frac{x}{20}[/tex]

ATQ

[tex]\frac{x}{20}[/tex]≈1

x≈20

So, the number of pink pens can be 19 .

Answer:

W perimeter = 40

Step-by-step explanation:

All the sides of the squares equal the same amount.

If the perimeter of R is 28 divide 28 by 4 to give you 7.

And to get the area of a square you do length x width

So T would be 3 x 3 = 9

And it you add up 7 + 3 the sides on R and T = 10

So the left side on square W = 10

To get the perimeter multiply 10*4 = 40

I'm 90% sure, but hope this helps!!!

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

-5x =25x      

-5 -5

you divide both sides by -5

and you get x=5

hunn please click thanks button

Answer:

35 %

Step-by-step explanation:

50 % of 80 is 40 so 28% of 80 is 35%

if you just divide  80 by 28 you will get 35.

Answer: -18

Step-by-step explanation: